Current Affairs — 12 October 2026

1. One Nation, One Election: The Supreme Court-JPC Stand-off and Separation of Powers

Basic Concept

The idea of 'One Nation, One Election' (ONOE) refers to holding simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies, so that voters go to the polls together rather than in a staggered cycle through the five-year term. India followed this practice until 1967, after which premature dissolutions of some Assemblies broke the cycle. Proponents argue ONOE reduces election expenditure, administrative burden, and the policy paralysis caused by the Model Code of Conduct being in force frequently. Critics argue it weakens federalism by tying State elections to national political waves, and that amending the Constitution for it requires careful checks on separation of powers among the legislature, executive and judiciary.

Core Context

The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024, which proposes ONOE, is being examined by a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) of Parliament. The JPC had sought an interaction with the Chief Justice of India and senior Supreme Court judges, but the Supreme Court declined this proposed meeting, citing concerns that such an interaction could blur the separation of powers, especially since the same Bill, if passed, would likely face judicial review in the Supreme Court itself. Legal commentators have flagged this episode as a reminder of the judiciary's institutional independence even while Parliament frames constitutional amendments.

Latest Developments

• The Bill proposes inserting Article 82A into the Constitution to synchronise the terms of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from an appointed date.

• An 'unexpired term' rule is proposed for Assemblies constituted through mid-term/by-elections, so their term ends with the common five-year cycle rather than running a fresh full term.

• The Bill also proposes giving the President power, on the Election Commission's recommendation, to defer elections in a particular State if normal elections are not feasible, with special elections to be held later for the remainder of the term.

• Critics cite the basic structure doctrine and federalism as grounds on which the amendment could face judicial scrutiny if passed.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 relates to simultaneous elections and proposes a new Article 82A.

• India last held simultaneous Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections in 1967.

• A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) examines Bills referred to it by Parliament before they are taken up for passage.

• Separation of powers in India is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution, even though it is not as rigid as in the US model.

2. Election Commission of India: The Removal Debate and Institutional Safeguards

Basic Concept

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent constitutional body set up under Article 324 of the Constitution to superintend, direct and control elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. It consists of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners, whose service conditions and tenure are decided by Parliament. The CEC can only be removed through a process similar to the impeachment of a Supreme Court judge, a safeguard meant to protect the ECI's independence from executive pressure, since free and fair elections are considered essential to India's democracy.

Core Context

Continuing protests in parts of the country, including demonstrations in Delhi and other cities, have demanded the removal of the current Chief Election Commissioner over allegations relating to the conduct of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls and broader concerns about the ECI's neutrality. The Supreme Court has so far declined to pass any order suspending the CEC, while opposition parties have discussed moving a removal motion in Parliament. The episode has reopened debate on whether the current appointment and removal process for Election Commissioners gives the institution enough insulation from the government of the day.

Latest Developments

• The Chief Election Commissioner enjoys security of tenure similar to a Supreme Court judge; removal requires a Presidential order following an address by Parliament with a two-thirds majority, on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

• Other Election Commissioners can be removed on the CEC's recommendation, which gives the CEC a distinct protective role within the three-member Commission.

• The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 currently governs the appointment process, replacing the earlier Election Commissioners Act, 1991.

• The protests have renewed public debate on the composition of the Selection Committee for appointing Election Commissioners, following the Supreme Court's 2023 Anoop Baranwal judgment on this issue.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Article 324 of the Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India.

• The CEC's removal procedure mirrors that for a Supreme Court judge (Article 324(5)), while other Election Commissioners can be removed on the CEC's recommendation.

• The 2023 Act on appointment of Election Commissioners followed the Supreme Court's Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India judgment.

• The Model Code of Conduct, enforced by the ECI, is not legally enforceable by statute but derives authority from the ECI's constitutional mandate.

3. UAPA and the Saibaba Case: Reform Debate on India's Anti-Terror Law

Basic Concept

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, is India's principal anti-terror law, allowing the government to declare organisations 'unlawful' or 'terrorist' and permitting prolonged pre-trial detention with a high threshold for bail. Amendments in 2004, 2008, 2012 and especially 2019 expanded its scope, including allowing individuals (not just organisations) to be designated as terrorists. Civil liberties groups have long argued that UAPA's stringent bail provisions (Section 43D(5)) and low conviction rates point to its misuse against dissenters, activists and academics, while the state defends it as necessary for national security.

Core Context

12 October 2026 marks the second death anniversary of G.N. Saibaba, a former Delhi University professor with over 90% physical disability, who spent about a decade in custody under UAPA on charges of Maoist links before being acquitted by the Bombay High Court in March 2024 for lack of credible evidence. He died in October 2024, months after his release, due to health complications. His case is frequently cited in discussions on UAPA reform, highlighting concerns about prolonged incarceration without conviction, access to healthcare in custody, and the need for speedier trials.

Latest Developments

• Under Section 43D(5) of UAPA, bail can be denied if the court is satisfied that the accusation appears 'prima facie true', a much stricter standard than ordinary criminal law.

• India's National Crime Records Bureau data has repeatedly shown a low conviction rate under UAPA relative to the number of years undertrials spend in custody.

• Reform proposals include judicial review of the prima facie satisfaction standard, time-bound trials, and better healthcare access for disabled or ill undertrials.

• The Saibaba case is often discussed alongside the Bhima Koregaon case as examples cited in the UAPA reform debate.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• UAPA, 1967 is the primary law in India for designating unlawful associations and individual terrorists.

• Section 43D(5) of UAPA imposes a stringent bail standard distinct from the ordinary Code of Criminal Procedure/Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita.

• The 2019 UAPA amendment empowered the Centre to designate individuals, not just organisations, as terrorists.

• G.N. Saibaba was acquitted by the Bombay High Court in 2024 after about ten years in custody under UAPA.

4. National Conclave on Tribal Rights: Implementation Gaps in Constitutional Safeguards

Basic Concept

India's Constitution provides a special architecture of protection for Scheduled Tribes, recognising their distinct socio-cultural identity and historical marginalisation. This includes reservation provisions under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), protection of tribal customary rights, the Fifth Schedule for tribal areas in mainland India and the Sixth Schedule for tribal areas in the North-East, and dedicated bodies like the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under Article 338A. Legislation such as the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (commonly the Forest Rights Act) operationalise self-governance and land/forest rights for tribal communities.

Core Context

The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs organised a National Conclave on Tribal Rights in New Delhi to take stock of how far tribal communities are actually able to access these constitutional and statutory protections in practice. Discussions centred on implementation gaps such as delays in recognising individual and community forest rights claims, patchy enforcement of PESA in Fifth Schedule States, and the need for better convergence between tribal welfare schemes and ground-level grievance redress.

Latest Developments

• The conclave reviewed pending claims under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, noting wide variation in claim disposal rates across States.

• PESA, 1996 mandates that Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas be consulted before land acquisition and before granting mining leases, but enforcement remains uneven.

• The Fifth Schedule allows the Governor of a State to make regulations for the peace and good government of Scheduled Areas, including modifying ordinary laws for tribal areas.

• The discussion also touched on the Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989 and its implementation challenges in tribal-majority districts.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Article 338A establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

• The Fifth Schedule governs tribal areas in mainland India; the Sixth Schedule covers tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• PESA, 1996 extends Panchayati Raj provisions to Scheduled Areas with special safeguards for Gram Sabhas.

• The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognises both Individual Forest Rights (IFR) and Community Forest Rights (CFR).

5. Nobel Peace Prize 2026 to Navi Pillay: International Justice Institutions in Focus

Basic Concept

The Nobel Peace Prize, instituted under Alfred Nobel's will and awarded by the Norwegian Nobel Committee, recognises individuals or organisations that have done the most to advance peace, often through work on human rights, disarmament, or international justice. India is not a signatory to the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) and has historically been cautious about the ICC's jurisdiction, even though it supports many human rights mechanisms through the United Nations system. Understanding the architecture of international criminal justice, including the ICC and UN human rights bodies, is useful for GS2 International Relations and International Institutions.

Core Context

Navanethem 'Navi' Pillay, a South African jurist of Tamil-Indian origin, was awarded the 2026 Nobel Peace Prize for her decades of work defending international justice, including as a judge at the International Criminal Court and later as the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights. The announcement gained added significance as it came shortly before the United States announced economic sanctions on the ICC, intensifying the long-running friction between major powers and the Court's efforts to assert jurisdiction over nationals of non-member states.

Latest Developments

• Pillay previously served as a judge and President of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda (ICTR), which was among the first tribunals to recognise rape as an act of genocide.

• She served as UN High Commissioner for Human Rights from 2008 to 2014, a period covering major crises including the Arab Spring.

• The US is not a member of the Rome Statute system and has periodically imposed sanctions on ICC officials over investigations involving its personnel or allies.

• India abstained from the Rome Statute largely over concerns about the ICC's jurisdiction overriding national sovereignty and the inclusion of the crime of aggression.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded by the Norwegian Nobel Committee, unlike other Nobel Prizes awarded by Swedish institutions.

• Navi Pillay is a former judge of the International Criminal Court and former UN High Commissioner for Human Rights.

• India has not ratified the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.

• The International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda (ICTR) was set up to prosecute crimes related to the 1994 Rwandan genocide.

6. Flash Floods in Nepal's Gorkha District: Himalayan Disaster Risk and Transboundary Cooperation

Basic Concept

The Himalayan region, including Nepal and India's northern States, is highly prone to flash floods due to steep terrain, glacial and snow-melt-fed rivers, intense monsoon and post-monsoon rainfall, and increasingly erratic weather linked to climate change. Flash floods differ from regular riverine floods in their suddenness and destructive speed, often triggered by cloudbursts, landslide-dam breaches, or glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs). Because many Himalayan rivers are transboundary, such as the Gandaki (known as the Narayani/Gandak in India) and the Koshi, disaster risk management in the region requires India-Nepal cooperation on early warning and river data sharing.

Core Context

A sudden surge in the Budhi Gandaki River in Nepal's Gorkha district swept away dozens of houses and several bridges, forcing evacuations and triggering search operations for people reported missing. Authorities in Nepal issued evacuation alerts downstream as water levels rose rapidly. Because the Gandaki system feeds into the Gandak river in Bihar, such events are tracked closely by India's disaster management agencies for downstream flood risk.

Latest Developments

• India's National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) guidelines emphasise early warning systems, hazard mapping, and community-based disaster preparedness for flash floods.

• The India-Nepal Joint Standing Technical Committee and related mechanisms coordinate flood forecasting and hydrological data-sharing on shared rivers such as the Gandak, Koshi, and Mahakali.

• Flash floods in the region are being increasingly linked to erratic rainfall patterns and the retreat of Himalayan glaciers associated with climate change.

• Nepal's own disaster response involves its National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Authority (NDRRMA).

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Budhi Gandaki is a tributary of the Gandaki/Narayani river system, which becomes the Gandak river after entering Bihar.

• A Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) is a sudden release of water from a glacial lake, often due to a moraine or ice dam failure.

• NDMA functions under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, with the Prime Minister as its ex-officio chairperson.

• India and Nepal share several transboundary river basins, including the Gandak, Koshi, and Mahakali, requiring joint flood management arrangements.

7. Houthi Threats to Saudi Arabia: Red Sea Security and India's Stakes

Basic Concept

The Houthi movement (Ansar Allah) controls large parts of Yemen and has been engaged in a long conflict with a Saudi-led coalition supporting Yemen's internationally recognised government. Since the escalation of the Israel-Hamas conflict, the Houthis have expanded attacks to include shipping in the Red Sea and Bab-el-Mandeb Strait and periodic missile and drone strikes on Saudi territory, citing solidarity with Gaza and retaliation against the coalition. For India, Gulf security matters directly because of energy imports, the large Indian expatriate population in the Gulf, and the strategic importance of Red Sea shipping lanes for India's trade with Europe.

Core Context

A Houthi missile and drone strike on Riyadh's King Khalid International Airport killed about a dozen people and injured roughly 300, one of the most serious attacks on Saudi territory in years, prompting the airport's temporary closure and interception of further projectiles. Following the strike, the Houthis publicly threatened to continue treating Saudi airports and airspace as targets, raising concerns about further escalation in the region.

Latest Developments

• The attack and subsequent threats underscore the fragility of the informal truce that had reduced direct Houthi-Saudi hostilities in recent years.

• Disruption to Red Sea shipping routes has already pushed up insurance costs and transit times for vessels, including those on India-Europe trade routes via the Suez Canal.

• India has repeatedly called for de-escalation in the Gulf and Red Sea given its energy and trade dependence on the region.

• The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and Saudi-led coalition continue to coordinate air defence against Houthi missile and drone attacks.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Houthi movement controls significant territory in Yemen, including the capital Sanaa.

• The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and is a key chokepoint for India-Europe maritime trade.

• India's crude oil imports and remittances from the large expatriate workforce make Gulf stability strategically important for India.

• The Suez Canal-Red Sea route is the shortest sea link between the Indian Ocean and the Mediterranean.

8. From MGNREGA to VB-G RAM G: Evolution of India's Rural Employment Guarantee

Basic Concept

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. It is a rights-based, demand-driven social security law, administered through Gram Panchayats, and has been a key safety net since its enactment under the UPA government. Over nearly two decades, implementation challenges such as delayed wage payments, discrepancies between demanded and provided work, and the shift to Aadhaar-based payment systems (ABPS) have shaped the debate on reforming the scheme.

Core Context

The government has been rolling out the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin), or VB-G RAM G, intended as a modernised, digitally governed successor framework to MGNREGA, aiming to integrate livelihood promotion with the employment guarantee and improve transparency through technology-based monitoring. The transition has drawn both support, for better targeting and digital accountability, and caution, over whether the legal guarantee and bargaining power of the original Act will be preserved in the new framework.

Latest Developments

• MGNREGA mandates a legal guarantee of employment, meaning unemployment allowance must be paid if work is not provided within 15 days of demand.

• VB-G RAM G is projected to combine the employment guarantee function with convergence to livelihood and skilling missions under the Ministry of Rural Development.

• Digital tools such as the National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) and Aadhaar-based payments have been central to recent MGNREGA reforms and will likely continue under the new framework.

• Civil society groups have flagged concerns about whether the new mission retains MGNREGA's enforceable legal right to work.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• MGNREGA, 2005 guarantees a minimum of 100 days of wage employment per rural household per year.

• MGNREGA works are implemented mainly through Gram Panchayats under the Ministry of Rural Development.

• VB-G RAM G (Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission, Gramin) is the proposed successor framework to MGNREGA.

• The National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) app is used for worker attendance tracking on MGNREGA worksites.

9. Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses Completes One Year

Basic Concept

India is a major producer but also the world's largest importer and consumer of pulses, a key source of protein in the Indian diet and important for soil nitrogen fixation in crop rotation. Recurrent dependence on imports (from countries like Myanmar, Canada and Mozambique) and price volatility in pulses such as tur (arhar), urad and masur have long been a concern for food security and farmer income. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) procurement mechanism, operated mainly through agencies like NAFED and NCCF, is the government's main tool to incentivise farmers to grow more pulses domestically.

Core Context

The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses, approved by the Union Cabinet in October 2025 with an outlay of about ₹11,440 crore, completed its first year on 11 October 2026. The mission targets self-sufficiency in pulses by 2030-31, aiming for production of around 350 lakh tonnes, with a special focus on tur, urad and masur. On its anniversary, the government highlighted improved composite performance scores across the 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts where the mission is being intensively implemented.

Latest Developments

• NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation) and NCCF (National Cooperative Consumers' Federation) are the nodal procurement agencies buying pulses at MSP under the mission.

• The mission plans to set up around 1,000 processing units to improve value addition and reduce post-harvest losses in pulses.

• The 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts programme, modelled on the Aspirational Districts Programme, is being used to track mission performance at the district level.

• Self-sufficiency in pulses would reduce India's import dependence on trade partners such as Myanmar, Canada, Mozambique and Australia.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses was approved by the Union Cabinet in October 2025 with an outlay of about ₹11,440 crore.

• The mission's production target is about 350 lakh tonnes of pulses by 2030-31.

• NAFED and NCCF are the key procurement agencies for pulses under MSP operations.

• The mission focuses especially on tur (arhar), urad, and masur among pulses.

10. National SC-ST Hub: Promoting Entrepreneurship Among SC/ST Communities

Basic Concept

The National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) was launched in 2016 under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) to provide professional support to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe entrepreneurs, helping them participate more effectively in public procurement, access finance, and build business capacity. It is implemented through the National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) and complements the government's public procurement policy, which mandates a minimum sourcing target from micro and small enterprises, including a specific sub-target for SC/ST-owned enterprises.

Core Context

Recent data shared around the NSSH's ongoing review shows a sharp rise in public procurement from SC/ST-owned micro and small enterprises, growing from about ₹99.37 crore in 2015-16 to around ₹4,013.42 crore in 2025-26, reflecting wider adoption of the government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal and targeted vendor development programmes under the Hub.

Latest Developments

• The Public Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises mandates that Central Ministries and PSUs source at least 25% of their annual procurement from MSEs, with a 4% sub-target for SC/ST-owned enterprises.

• The NSSH provides support in areas such as access to credit, skill development, technology upgradation, and marketing, specifically tailored for SC/ST entrepreneurs.

• The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has been a key enabler for small SC/ST vendors to access public procurement opportunities without needing extensive liaison networks.

• The scheme aligns with the broader Stand-Up India scheme, which also promotes entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs through bank loans.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The National SC-ST Hub was launched in 2016 under the Ministry of MSME and is implemented via NSIC.

• The Public Procurement Policy mandates a 4% sub-target for SC/ST-owned micro and small enterprises within the overall 25% MSE procurement target.

• GeM (Government e-Marketplace) is the online platform for public procurement by government departments and PSUs.

• Stand-Up India is a separate scheme promoting bank financing for SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.

11. TRISHNA Satellite: India-France Thermal Earth Observation Mission

Basic Concept

Thermal infrared remote sensing allows satellites to measure the temperature of the Earth's land and water surfaces, which is valuable for monitoring irrigation and crop water stress, urban heat islands, coastal and inland water quality, and volcanic or industrial heat sources. India and France have a long history of joint satellite missions combining ISRO's launch and satellite-bus expertise with CNES's (the French space agency) sensor technology, building on earlier collaborations such as Megha-Tropiques (tropical weather) and SARAL (ocean altimetry).

Core Context

TRISHNA (Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment) is a joint ISRO-CNES mission designed to provide high-resolution thermal infrared data for monitoring surface temperature, water resources, agriculture and ecosystems. ISRO has indicated the satellite is expected to launch on a PSLV rocket within about 12 to 16 months, making it the third major India-France joint satellite mission after Megha-Tropiques and SARAL.

Latest Developments

• TRISHNA will provide thermal infrared imagery at a spatial resolution finer than most existing global thermal satellites, useful for precision agriculture and water-stress monitoring.

• The mission supports India's water security and climate adaptation goals by enabling better tracking of evapotranspiration and irrigation efficiency.

• It will be launched on ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), India's workhorse launcher for earth observation missions.

• TRISHNA data will be useful for monitoring urban heat islands, a growing concern for Indian cities during heatwaves.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• TRISHNA stands for Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment.

• TRISHNA is a joint mission between ISRO (India) and CNES (France's space agency).

• Megha-Tropiques and SARAL are earlier India-France joint satellite missions; TRISHNA is the third in this series.

• TRISHNA is planned to be launched on ISRO's PSLV.

12. CERVAVAC Gets WHO Prequalification: India's Indigenous HPV Vaccine

Basic Concept

Cervical cancer, caused mainly by persistent infection with high-risk strains of the Human Papillomavirus (HPV), is among the leading cancers affecting Indian women, and is largely preventable through HPV vaccination and regular screening. WHO prequalification is a rigorous assessment process confirming that a vaccine meets international standards of quality, safety and efficacy, which is often a prerequisite for a vaccine to be purchased by UN agencies like UNICEF and supplied to other countries through global health programmes such as Gavi.

Core Context

CERVAVAC, India's first indigenously developed, quadrivalent (four-strain) HPV vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India, received WHO prequalification. This is a milestone for India's vaccine manufacturing capability and opens the door for CERVAVAC's wider domestic rollout as well as export to other developing countries through global procurement mechanisms, strengthening India's position as a major vaccine-producing nation.

Latest Developments

• CERVAVAC is described as gender-neutral, meaning it can be administered to both girls and boys, broadening protection against HPV-linked cancers beyond cervical cancer alone.

• WHO prequalification typically enables a vaccine to be procured by agencies such as UNICEF and Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance, for use in lower-income countries.

• India's Universal Immunisation Programme has been considering HPV vaccination for adolescent girls as part of its long-term cervical cancer elimination strategy.

• The development builds on India's reputation as the 'vaccine hub of the world', following its earlier large-scale production of vaccines like Covishield.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• CERVAVAC is manufactured by the Serum Institute of India and is a quadrivalent HPV vaccine.

• HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is the principal causative agent for cervical cancer.

• WHO prequalification is often a precondition for procurement by Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance, and UNICEF.

• Cervical cancer is largely preventable through vaccination and regular screening (such as the Pap smear test).

13. Climate Change-Induced Sex Reversal in Frogs: A New Extinction Risk

Basic Concept

In many amphibian species, sex is determined by a combination of genetic factors and environmental conditions such as temperature, a phenomenon called environmental or temperature-dependent sex determination/reversal. Amphibians, being ectothermic (cold-blooded) and highly sensitive to temperature and moisture changes, are considered important bio-indicators of environmental stress and climate change impacts, and are among the most threatened vertebrate groups globally according to IUCN assessments.

Core Context

A study published in the journal Science Advances on wild agile frog (Rana dalmatina) populations in Hungary found that climate change-induced warming is causing genetic males to develop into functional females, a process called sex reversal. Researchers found that sex-reversed individuals had reduced reproductive success compared to normally-developed females, suggesting that this phenomenon could skew population sex ratios and elevate extinction risk in warming climates, with implications extending beyond this one species.

Latest Developments

• Sex reversal in amphibians caused by heat stress had previously been shown mainly in laboratory settings; this study is notable for documenting it in a wild population.

• Reduced reproductive success among sex-reversed females could lower effective population size and genetic diversity over time.

• The findings add to concerns about amphibian population declines, already linked to habitat loss, pollution, and diseases like chytridiomycosis (a fungal disease).

• Amphibians play important ecological roles as both predators (of insects) and prey, making their population health relevant to broader ecosystem stability.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Agile frog (Rana dalmatina) is the species studied for climate-induced sex reversal in Hungary.

• Sex reversal refers to a genetically one-sex individual developing phenotypically as the other sex due to environmental triggers like temperature.

• Amphibians are ectothermic (cold-blooded) vertebrates and are considered sensitive bio-indicators of environmental change.

• Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease that has caused mass amphibian die-offs globally.

14. Exercise INDRA-2026: India-Russia Naval Cooperation

Basic Concept

INDRA is the series of joint military exercises between India and Russia, covering army, navy and air force components at different times, and named after the two countries' initials. Naval exercises under this banner typically focus on interoperability in areas such as anti-submarine warfare, search and rescue, surface action drills, and communication protocols between the two navies, reflecting the long-standing India-Russia defence relationship that includes platforms such as the Kilo-class submarines and the BrahMos missile programme.

Core Context

The Indian Navy's frontline frigate INS Sahyadri reached Vladivostok in Russia's Far East to take part in the Indian Navy-Russian Navy bilateral maritime exercise INDRA-2026, scheduled to be held from 13 to 18 October 2026. The exercise is expected to include joint manoeuvres, cross-deck visits and tactical drills aimed at enhancing interoperability between the two navies.

Latest Developments

• INS Sahyadri is an indigenously built Shivalik-class stealth frigate of the Indian Navy.

• Vladivostok is the headquarters of Russia's Pacific Fleet, located in the Far East near the Sea of Japan.

• INDRA exercises have historically rotated between India and Russia as host nations and have included army, air force and naval components in different editions.

• The exercise comes amid India's continuing efforts to balance its traditional defence ties with Russia alongside deepening defence cooperation with Western countries.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• INDRA is the joint military exercise series between India and Russia.

• INS Sahyadri belongs to the Shivalik-class of stealth frigates built indigenously for the Indian Navy.

• Vladivostok, the venue for INDRA-2026's naval component, is the base of Russia's Pacific Fleet.

• INDRA-2026 (naval component) is scheduled for 13-18 October 2026.

15. All-India Sarus Crane Survey: Conserving India's Tallest Flying Bird

Basic Concept

The Sarus Crane (Grus antigone, now often classified as Antigone antigone) is the tallest flying bird in the world and holds deep cultural significance in India, often associated with marital fidelity in folklore because pairs are believed to mate for life. It is listed as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule II of India's Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Uttar Pradesh has even declared it the State bird. Its populations depend heavily on wetlands and agricultural floodplains, making it vulnerable to wetland degradation, power-line collisions, and pesticide use.

Core Context

The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), India's oldest and one of its most respected wildlife research organisations, announced a nationwide All-India Sarus Crane Survey. The survey aims to establish a reliable population baseline, map key breeding and roosting sites across States, and assess threats such as collisions with power lines and habitat loss, to inform future conservation planning for the species.

Latest Developments

• Sarus Crane populations in India are concentrated in States such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.

• The species is listed as 'Vulnerable' under the IUCN Red List and in Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended in 2022).

• BNHS has previously conducted regional Sarus Crane studies, including work in Vidarbha, Maharashtra; this is its first coordinated all-India effort.

• Collision with power transmission lines has emerged as a significant, often under-recorded, cause of Sarus Crane mortality.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Sarus Crane is the tallest flying bird in the world.

• It is the State bird of Uttar Pradesh.

• The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is conducting the first All-India Sarus Crane Survey.

• The species is classified as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List and protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

16. Practice MCQs

Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024:
1. It proposes insertion of a new Article 82A to synchronise Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections.
2. It empowers the President to defer elections in a State on the recommendation of the Election Commission of India.
3. It was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee for examination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Bill proposes Article 82A for simultaneous elections, allows Presidential deferral of State elections on ECI's recommendation, and is currently before a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), which recently had a proposed meeting with the Supreme Court declined by the Court itself.

Q2. Which of the following statements about the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is/are correct?
1. The CEC can be removed only in a manner similar to the impeachment of a Supreme Court judge.
2. Other Election Commissioners can be removed on the recommendation of the CEC.
3. The power to remove the CEC rests solely with the President without any parliamentary process.
Select the correct answer using the code below.

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Article 324(5) provides that the CEC shall not be removed except in the manner and on the grounds applicable to a Supreme Court judge (i.e., via a parliamentary address with special majority), while other Election Commissioners can be removed on the CEC's recommendation. Statement 3 is incorrect since the President cannot remove the CEC unilaterally.

Q3. With reference to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, consider the following statements:
1. Section 43D(5) of the Act imposes a stricter bail standard than ordinary criminal law.
2. The 2019 amendment to UAPA empowered the government to designate individuals, and not only organisations, as terrorists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Section 43D(5) requires courts to deny bail if the accusation appears 'prima facie true', a stricter standard than regular criminal law. The 2019 amendment to UAPA extended the 'terrorist' designation power to individuals, not just organisations — a change that has been central to the reform debate highlighted by cases such as G.N. Saibaba's.

Q4. The 2026 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Navi Pillay. Which of the following best describes her background?

• (a) Former Secretary-General of the United Nations

• (b) Former judge of the International Criminal Court and former UN High Commissioner for Human Rights

• (c) Former President of the International Court of Justice

• (d) Former Director-General of the World Health Organization

Answer: (b) Former judge of the International Criminal Court and former UN High Commissioner for Human Rights

Explanation: Navi Pillay is a South African jurist of Tamil-Indian origin who served as a judge (and earlier as President of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda), later becoming a judge at the International Criminal Court, and subsequently the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights (2008-2014).

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses:
1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet with an outlay of about ₹11,440 crore.
2. It targets pulses self-sufficiency with a production target of around 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31.
3. NAFED and NCCF are among the agencies undertaking MSP procurement under the mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three statements are correct. The mission, approved in October 2025 with a ₹11,440 crore outlay, targets self-sufficiency in pulses (about 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31) with NAFED and NCCF conducting MSP procurement, especially of tur, urad and masur.

Q6. The TRISHNA satellite mission, often in the news, is a joint collaboration between which two countries' space agencies?

• (a) India and the United States

• (b) India and Japan

• (c) India and France

• (d) India and Russia

Answer: (c) India and France

Explanation: TRISHNA (Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment) is a joint mission between ISRO (India) and CNES (France's space agency), following earlier joint missions Megha-Tropiques and SARAL.

Q7. With reference to the Sarus Crane, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
2. It is listed as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List.
3. It is the State bird of Uttar Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code below.

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Sarus Crane is the world's tallest flying bird, is classified as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List, and has been declared the State bird of Uttar Pradesh. The Bombay Natural History Society recently launched the first All-India Sarus Crane Survey.