Current Affairs — 20 September 2026

1. Asian Games 2026: India's Landmark Campaign in Aichi–Nagoya

Basic Concept

The Asian Games, organised once every four years by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), is the largest multi-sport event in Asia after the Olympics, covering both Olympic and Asia-specific disciplines such as kabaddi, sepak takraw and, since recent editions, mixed martial arts (MMA) and esports. For India, the Games are a recurring Prelims and Mains talking point because performance trends are read as indicators of the country's evolving sports ecosystem, the Khelo India scheme, and Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) support to athletes.

Core Context

The 2026 Asian Games opened in Aichi–Nagoya, Japan — the country's third time hosting the event after Tokyo (1958) and Hiroshima (1994) — with India's contingent led by flag-bearers Pawan Sehrawat (kabaddi) and Manu Bhaker (shooting). Over the opening weekend, Indian athletes across several disciplines delivered strong results, giving the country one of its more eventful starts in recent editions.

Latest Developments

• Shooter Elavenil Valarivan won a “double silver” — first in the women's 10m air rifle team event alongside her teammates, and then in the individual final — opening India's medal account at the Games.

• Suchika Tariyal became the first Indian ever to win an Asian Games medal in mixed martial arts (MMA), a discipline that has only recently been added to the Asiad programme.

• India's women's hockey team recorded a one-sided victory over Uzbekistan in their group-stage fixture.

• Cricketer Smriti Mandhana became the leading run-scorer in Women's T20 Internationals during India's semi-final match at the Games, cricket having been part of the Asian Games programme since the 2014 Incheon edition.

• India's table tennis contingent won its opening matches, adding to the country's broad-based medal push across combat, shooting and racquet sports.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi–Nagoya, Japan.

• The Asian Games are organised by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), headquartered in Kuwait.

• Cricket has been a medal event at the Asian Games since the 2014 Incheon Games.

• MMA is a newly inducted discipline at the Asian Games, in which India won its first-ever medal in 2026.

2. RSS Chief's Remarks Reignite the Debate on Secularism and the Constitution

Basic Concept

Secularism in the Indian context does not mean the separation of religion from the state (as in some Western democracies) but “principled distance” — the state neither favours nor disfavours any religion and may intervene to reform social practices within any faith. The word “Secular” was inserted into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, though the Supreme Court has held that secularism was always implicit in the Constitution's original scheme through Articles 25 to 28 (freedom of religion) and Article 15 (non-discrimination). In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Court identified secularism as part of the Constitution's “basic structure,” meaning it cannot be diluted even by a constitutional amendment.

Core Context

RSS chief Mohan Bhagwat stated that secularism, having emerged from Europe's historical conflicts between the church and the state, does not naturally fit India's civilisational tradition, which he described as being rooted in dharma-based religious pluralism rather than a Western-style separation of religion and governance. The remarks have reignited a long-running debate over how India's constitutional secularism relates to its cultural and religious traditions.

Latest Developments

• The comments come against the backdrop of recurring political and academic debate on whether the term “secular” in the Preamble reflects an imported concept or an articulation of an existing Indian ethos of religious tolerance.

• Because secularism has been judicially recognised as part of the basic structure, any legislative or executive attempt to formally alter its constitutional standing would face significant judicial scrutiny.

• The debate intersects with other live issues such as the Uniform Civil Code (Article 44, a Directive Principle) and personal law reform, both of which are frequently framed in terms of competing understandings of secularism.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The word “Secular” was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, along with “Socialist” and “Integrity.”

• The “basic structure” doctrine originates from the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) judgment.

• Articles 25–28 of the Constitution deal with the Right to Freedom of Religion.

• The Indian model of secularism is often described as “principled distance,” distinct from the strict wall-of-separation model.

3. India–Canada CEPA: Fourth Round of Trade Talks Concludes in Mumbai

Basic Concept

A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a wide-ranging free trade agreement that goes beyond tariff reduction to cover trade in services, investment, intellectual property and regulatory cooperation. India already has similar agreements in force with the UAE and Australia, and is negotiating several others, including with the European Union and the United Kingdom, as part of its strategy to diversify export markets and integrate into global value chains.

Core Context

India and Canada concluded the fourth round of CEPA negotiations in Mumbai, with Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal meeting Canada's International Trade Minister Maninder Sidhu. Both sides reaffirmed their commitment to conclude the agreement by the end of 2026, restoring momentum to a bilateral trade relationship that had cooled in recent years over diplomatic frictions.

Latest Developments

• Two-way trade between India and Canada stood at $30.4 billion in 2025; both countries have set an ambitious target of raising this to $70 billion by 2030.

• Focus areas identified for the agreement include aerospace, artificial intelligence, clean energy and critical minerals — sectors central to India's manufacturing and energy-transition goals.

• India's major exports to Canada include pharmaceuticals, iron and steel, seafood, cotton garments and electronics, while Canada supplies India with pulses, potash-based fertilisers, coal and crude petroleum.

• The talks also flagged services trade, particularly telecommunications and IT/ITeS, as an area for deeper cooperation.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• India has CEPAs in force with the UAE (2022) and Australia (ECTA, 2022).

• CEPA differs from a standard Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in that it typically covers services, investment and IPR in addition to goods.

• India–Canada two-way trade was valued at $30.4 billion in 2025, with a 2030 target of $70 billion.

• Pulses and potash are among Canada's key exports to India, relevant to India's fertiliser security.

4. India's Energy Security Under Pressure: US Sanctions Bill, Falling Russian Oil Imports and the Hormuz Strike

Basic Concept

India imports over four-fifths of its crude oil requirement, making energy security a recurring GS2/GS3 theme covering diversification of supply sources, strategic petroleum reserves, and the balancing act between economic interest and geopolitical alignment. The Strait of Hormuz, between Iran and Oman, is the world's most important oil chokepoint, carrying roughly a fifth of global oil trade, and any disruption there has an outsized effect on prices for import-dependent economies like India.

Core Context

India has warned Washington that a proposed US Senate bill imposing steep secondary tariffs on countries buying Russian oil could strain bilateral ties and destabilise global energy markets, asserting its right to make energy-sourcing decisions based on national interest. Separately, data reviewed this week showed Russia's share in India's crude basket swinging sharply — from 36.6% in August 2025 down to 19.3% in February 2026 after earlier US tariff pressure, before rebounding to 51% in July 2026 and declining again amid renewed pressure. Compounding these energy-security concerns, Iran's Revolutionary Guards (IRGC) claimed responsibility for striking a Togo-flagged tanker, Trend, in the Strait of Hormuz.

Latest Developments

• The swings in India's Russian oil intake illustrate the tension between India's stated position of “strategic autonomy” in energy sourcing and the practical leverage that sanctions-driven trade diplomacy exerts on import decisions.

• The Hormuz tanker incident is part of a wider pattern of tensions in the strait through 2026, which analysts are tracking closely given the direct implications for India's Gulf-dependent crude and LNG imports.

• Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri has maintained that India is prepared for any sanctions-related fallout and expects global oil prices to soften rather than spike.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Strait of Hormuz carries roughly one-fifth of the world's seaborne oil trade.

• India sources crude oil mainly from Iraq, Russia, Saudi Arabia and the UAE, among others.

• “Secondary sanctions” target third countries that trade with a sanctioned nation, distinct from “primary sanctions” imposed directly on the sanctioned country.

• India maintains Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) at Vishakhapatnam, Mangalore and Padur to cushion against short-term supply shocks.

5. UAPA's 180-Day Rule: Default Bail for a US National in an NIA Case

Basic Concept

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, is India's principal anti-terror law. Under Section 43D(2)(b), investigating agencies get up to 180 days (extendable from the standard 90 days under the CrPC/BNSS) to file a chargesheet before a court can grant “default bail” or “statutory bail” as a matter of right, regardless of the seriousness of the allegations, if the chargesheet is not filed in time. This provision balances the state's need for thorough investigation in serious security cases against an accused person's fundamental right to liberty under Article 21.

Core Context

A Delhi court granted default bail to American national Matthew Aaron VanDyke, who was in National Investigation Agency (NIA) custody in a case related to alleged terror training activity linked to Myanmar, after the agency failed to invoke UAPA charges or file a complete chargesheet within the mandatory 180-day window.

Latest Developments

• The ruling reaffirms that even in cases probed by the NIA under anti-terror provisions, the statutory right to default bail cannot be denied once the prescribed period lapses without a chargesheet.

• Legal commentators have noted the case as a reminder of procedural safeguards operating even for foreign nationals investigated under UAPA.

• The case does not amount to an acquittal; VanDyke's bail is procedural, and NIA can still proceed with the chargesheet and trial subsequently.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act was enacted in 1967 and significantly amended in 2019 to allow designation of individuals (not just organisations) as terrorists.

• Default/statutory bail under UAPA is available if the chargesheet is not filed within 90 days, extendable up to 180 days on the court's satisfaction.

• The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was constituted under the NIA Act, 2008, in the aftermath of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.

• The right to default bail flows from the constitutional guarantee of personal liberty under Article 21.

6. West Bengal's SIR Appeals Backlog: 37 Lakh Cases Pending Before Tribunals

Basic Concept

Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a comprehensive, house-to-house re-verification of electoral rolls conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) under Article 324 and the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, aimed at removing ineligible entries (such as duplicate or deceased voters) and ensuring accurate inclusion of eligible citizens. Once a draft roll is published, affected citizens can appeal deletions or exclusions before Appellate Tribunals set up specifically for the exercise, before a final roll is notified.

Core Context

The Election Commission informed the Supreme Court that of roughly 38 lakh appeals filed against the SIR draft roll in West Bengal, over 37 lakh remain pending across the state's 19 Appellate Tribunals, with a disposal rate of under 3%, raising concerns ahead of the state's upcoming Assembly bypolls and municipal elections.

Latest Developments

• The scale of the backlog has drawn criticism that the tribunal infrastructure is inadequate for the volume of grievances generated by the SIR exercise, potentially disenfranchising eligible voters if appeals are not resolved before rolls are finalised.

• The matter is being monitored by the Supreme Court, which has previously laid down safeguards for SIR exercises, including the requirement of documentary proof and an appeals mechanism.

• Separately, political parties have also raised issues over symbol allocation disputes linked to factional splits ahead of the bypolls, underlining the broader contentiousness of West Bengal's electoral landscape this cycle.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• SIR is conducted by the Election Commission of India under Article 324 of the Constitution.

• West Bengal's SIR process has 19 dedicated Appellate Tribunals for hearing objections to the draft rolls.

• The Representation of the People Act, 1950, governs the preparation of electoral rolls.

• A similar SIR exercise has previously been conducted in Bihar, where it became a subject of Supreme Court scrutiny.

7. FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026: JPC Scrutinises the Asset-Forfeiture Clause

Basic Concept

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010, regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign funding by NGOs, associations and individuals in India, aiming to ensure such funds are not used against national interest. A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is a temporary committee comprising members from both Houses of Parliament, set up to examine a specific bill or issue in detail before it returns to Parliament for passage; its recommendations are not binding but carry significant political and legislative weight.

Core Context

A 31-member JPC examining the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026, has been questioning the Centre over a provision that would empower a government-designated authority to take over and dispose of the assets of organisations whose FCRA registration has been cancelled, with opposition members arguing this could violate Article 300A, which protects the right to property as a constitutional (though not fundamental) right.

Latest Developments

• Critics within the JPC argue the asset-forfeiture provision lacks adequate judicial oversight and could be used selectively against government-critical organisations.

• The government's position is that stronger enforcement powers are necessary to prevent misuse of foreign contributions and ensure accountability once an entity's registration is cancelled for violations.

• The JPC's report, once finalised, will shape whether the asset-forfeiture clause is retained, diluted, or made subject to additional safeguards before the Bill returns to Parliament.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The FCRA was first enacted in 1976 and substantially re-enacted in 2010; further restrictive amendments were made in 2020.

• Article 300A guarantees that no person shall be deprived of property save by authority of law — it is a constitutional right, not a Fundamental Right (having been removed from Part III by the 44th Amendment, 1978).

• The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for FCRA registration and enforcement.

• A Joint Parliamentary Committee is constituted through a motion adopted in one House and concurred in by the other.

8. NEET-UG May Shift to Computer-Based Testing After 2026 Paper-Leak Controversy

Basic Concept

The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test – Undergraduate (NEET-UG) is the single national entrance examination for admission to MBBS, BDS and other undergraduate medical courses in India, conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). It has historically been conducted in pen-and-paper (OMR) mode for its enormous candidate base, which has also made it vulnerable to paper leaks and impersonation rackets, most notably the widely reported 2024 and 2026 controversies.

Core Context

Responding to the Supreme Court in the wake of the 2026 NEET-UG paper-leak controversy, the Central Government stated that a shift to computer-based testing (CBT) for NEET-UG is under “active consideration,” based on the recommendations of a task force headed by Nandan Nilekani. The Court has also directed the NTA to build permanent institutional capacity, with at least half of its workforce to be permanent staff rather than deputationists or contractual employees.

Latest Developments

• A shift to CBT would bring NEET-UG in line with other major competitive examinations (such as JEE Main) that have already moved to computer-based formats to reduce paper-leak vulnerability, though scaling CBT infrastructure for NEET's much larger candidate pool remains a logistical challenge.

• The Supreme Court's directive on permanent staffing responds to long-standing criticism that NTA's reliance on temporary and deputed staff undermines institutional accountability and continuity.

• The Court has additionally considered visiting the NTA's offices directly to assess examination-security systems, reflecting the judiciary's unusually hands-on scrutiny of this issue.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• NEET-UG is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), set up in 2017.

• JEE Main, conducted by NTA, has already been in computer-based mode for several years.

• NEET became the sole common entrance test for MBBS/BDS admissions across India following Supreme Court rulings upholding its constitutional validity.

• The Nandan Nilekani-led task force has been tasked with recommending examination-reform measures, including a possible shift to CBT.

9. Maldives Clears Its $150-Million Loan to India

Basic Concept

India's “Neighbourhood First” policy and the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) doctrine emphasise financial and developmental support to India Ocean neighbours, including currency swap arrangements, concessional credit lines, and emergency budgetary support, aimed at ensuring regional stability and countering the debt-trap risks associated with financing from other major powers in the region.

Core Context

The Maldives has fully repaid a $150-million emergency budget support facility extended by India, routed through treasury bills issued via the State Bank of India (SBI), completing the loan cycle even as the island nation's foreign exchange reserves have fallen below $600 million following the repayment.

Latest Developments

• The repayment is being read as a signal of the Maldives honouring its financial commitments to India despite earlier diplomatic friction between the two countries under the previous Maldivian dispensation.

• India's continued financial engagement with the Maldives, including this facility, is viewed as part of its broader strategy to remain the Maldives' principal development partner amid competing Chinese interest in the region.

• The fall in Maldives' reserves after repayment highlights the fragile fiscal position of small Indian Ocean island economies, a recurring theme in India's regional diplomacy.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) was articulated by India in 2015 as its maritime doctrine for the Indian Ocean Region.

• The State Bank of India (SBI) is India's largest public sector bank and frequently the vehicle for sovereign-to-sovereign credit facilities to neighbouring countries.

• India extended a currency swap and budgetary support package to the Maldives in 2024 to help it avert a balance-of-payments crisis.

• The Maldives is a member of SAARC and IORA (Indian Ocean Rim Association).

10. UNGA's 80th Session and the Geopolitics of 2026: Ukraine, West Asia and the Arctic

Basic Concept

The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) is the UN's main deliberative organ, in which all 193 member states have equal representation and one vote each; its annual high-level segment in September brings together heads of state and government for the General Debate, which typically addresses the year's dominant global crises. The Arctic, meanwhile, has become a zone of strategic competition among the US, Russia and China, driven by melting sea ice opening new shipping routes and access to untapped mineral and hydrocarbon reserves.

Core Context

World leaders converged at the UNGA's 80th session to address the ongoing Ukraine conflict, tensions in West Asia (the Middle East), the governance of artificial intelligence, and the broader future of multilateral cooperation. In a related development on the sidelines of this geopolitical moment, the United States and Denmark announced a new security agreement concerning Greenland, an autonomous Danish territory, with formal signing expected the following week; both Greenland and Denmark clarified that the deal does not affect Greenland's sovereignty.

Latest Developments

• The Greenland agreement follows a period of tension after US statements about acquiring or controlling the territory; the new pact reportedly focuses on an expanded US military presence rather than a transfer of sovereignty.

• Greenland's strategic significance lies in its Arctic shipping lanes, rare-earth and mineral deposits, and its position within NATO's northern defence perimeter.

• At the UNGA, discussions on AI governance reflect growing international focus on regulating frontier technologies, an area where India has been an active voice through its G20 presidency legacy and its own AI governance frameworks.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The UNGA is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, alongside the Security Council, ECOSOC, the Trusteeship Council, the ICJ and the Secretariat.

• Greenland is an autonomous territory of Denmark, though Denmark retains control over its foreign and defence policy.

• The UNGA's decisions are generally recommendatory and not binding, unlike UN Security Council resolutions under Chapter VII.

• 2026 marks the UNGA's 80th session, as the UN itself was founded in 1945.

11. State of the Indian Economy: Growth Upgrade, RBI's Liquidity Drain and the Borrowing Calendar

Basic Concept

Several linked macroeconomic tools are relevant here. Open Market Operations (OMO) are RBI's purchase or sale of government securities to inject or absorb liquidity from the banking system, distinct from repo-based tools. The government's borrowing calendar is a pre-announced schedule (split into halves of the fiscal year) for issuing dated securities to fund its fiscal deficit, providing predictability to bond markets. Direct tax collections (income tax and corporate tax) are a key indicator of underlying economic and corporate profitability trends, tracked against Budget Estimates through the year.

Core Context

Global ratings agency Moody's raised India's GDP growth forecast for FY27 to 7% (from an earlier 6%), citing the economy's resilience to the West Asia conflict, even as it flagged inflation and energy-price risks. In parallel, the RBI carried out its first Open Market Operation bond sale in nine years — offloading ₹50,000 crore of government securities as the opening tranche of a planned ₹1-lakh-crore round of sales through September, aimed at absorbing a banking-system liquidity surplus that had swelled to nearly ₹10 trillion. The government also confirmed it will finalise its October–March borrowing calendar at a meeting on 25 September, having already raised ₹7.79 trillion of its ₹16.09-trillion annual borrowing target, with ₹7.96 trillion still to be raised in the second half.

Latest Developments

• The RBI's shift back to OMO sales, after preferring Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auctions in recent years, reflects muted bank demand for VRRR and a need for a more decisive liquidity-draining tool as durable liquidity was estimated to reach nearly ₹14 trillion by mid-September.

• Bond yields firmed to around 7.05% and the Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR) moved to about 5.05%, closer to the repo rate of 5.25%, indicating the OMO sales are helping align short-term rates with RBI's policy stance.

• Net direct tax collections rose nearly 13% year-on-year to over ₹12.12 lakh crore by mid-September, driven by a 16.2% rise in advance tax payments (corporate advance tax up 18%), signalling resilient corporate profitability.

• Some market analysts expect the RBI to raise the repo rate by a cumulative 50 basis points (two hikes of 25 bps each) before the end of calendar year 2026 if inflation risks from elevated crude prices persist.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Open Market Operations (OMOs) involve RBI buying or selling government securities to manage banking-system liquidity.

• India's government borrowing calendar is announced in two halves of the fiscal year (April–September and October–March).

• The current repo rate referenced is 5.25%, RBI's key policy rate under the flexible inflation-targeting framework.

• Advance tax is paid in quarterly instalments by taxpayers whose estimated tax liability exceeds a prescribed threshold, making it a leading indicator of economic activity.

12. The Global Chip Race: India's SEMICON 2026 Summit and China's CXMT DRAM Leap

Basic Concept

The India Semiconductor Mission, launched in 2021 with an outlay of about ₹76,000 crore, aims to build a complete domestic semiconductor ecosystem — from chip design and fabrication to assembly, testing and packaging (ATMP) — reducing reliance on a handful of countries (Taiwan, South Korea, the US and China) that currently dominate global chip manufacturing. DRAM (Dynamic Random-Access Memory) and its high-bandwidth variants are memory chips critical to computing, AI servers and consumer electronics, an area where China has been racing to build domestic capacity amid US export controls on advanced chipmaking equipment.

Core Context

India hosted SEMICON India 2026 at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi, where the Prime Minister laid out the country's semiconductor roadmap and government officials emphasised the need for international partnerships, framing chip manufacturing as an ecosystem no single nation can build alone. Almost simultaneously, Chinese memory-chip maker CXMT (ChangXin Memory Technologies) announced that its new fifth-generation (G5) DRAM platform, built at an 11.95-nanometre process node without relying on ASML's export-controlled extreme ultraviolet (EUV) lithography machines, has entered mass production — a notable technical milestone given the tight Western restrictions on advanced chipmaking tools to China.

Latest Developments

• India's semiconductor push has so far focused heavily on attracting fabrication and ATMP investment through production-linked incentives, with several fabs and assembly units approved since the Mission's launch, but India does not yet produce cutting-edge logic or memory chips domestically.

• CXMT's advance is being read by analysts as evidence that Chinese chipmakers are finding workarounds to Western export controls, intensifying the broader techno-strategic competition between the US-led and China-led semiconductor blocs.

• For India, the twin developments underline both the opportunity (as global supply chains diversify away from single points of failure) and the scale of the technological gap that remains to be closed in advanced chip fabrication.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The India Semiconductor Mission was launched in December 2021 with an outlay of about ₹76,000 crore.

• ATMP stands for Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging — a less capital-intensive segment of the chip value chain than fabrication.

• EUV (Extreme Ultraviolet) lithography machines, made primarily by the Dutch firm ASML, are essential for manufacturing the most advanced chips.

• DRAM is a type of volatile memory chip, as distinct from NAND flash, which is non-volatile storage memory.

13. India's Homegrown Innovation Ecosystem: DRDO's GaN Breakthrough

Basic Concept

Gallium Nitride (GaN) is a semiconductor material that outperforms traditional silicon in high-power, high-frequency applications such as radar transmit-receive modules, electronic warfare systems and 5G infrastructure, making indigenous GaN capability strategically significant for defence self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence). Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) as a share of GDP is a standard indicator used to compare countries' innovation intensity; India's GERD has historically lagged well behind that of the US, China and South Korea.

Core Context

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has achieved a significant indigenous breakthrough in Gallium Nitride (GaN) semiconductor technology for use in next-generation radars and electronic warfare systems, reducing India's dependence on imported chip technology for critical defence applications. The development has been cited as part of a broader trend: patent filings in India grew by over 30% year-on-year, and private-sector R&D spending overtook government R&D spending for the first time in 2024, signalling a structural shift in India's innovation base.

Latest Developments

• Historically, government spending has dominated India's R&D expenditure, unlike in the US or China, where private industry drives the bulk of research spending; the 2024 crossover suggests Indian industry is beginning to internalise R&D as a competitive necessity rather than relying solely on public investment.

• Analysts caution that despite this progress, India's overall R&D intensity (GERD/GDP) remains modest compared to global innovation leaders, meaning structural gains need to be sustained over a longer horizon to close the gap.

• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), operationalised to catalyse research funding across scientific disciplines, is expected to play a role in scaling such indigenous breakthroughs beyond defence into wider commercial application.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) functions under the Ministry of Defence and was established in 1958.

• Gallium Nitride (GaN) is prized in defence electronics for its high power density and thermal efficiency compared to silicon.

• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) was established under the ANRF Act, 2023, to boost research funding.

• GERD (Gross Expenditure on Research and Development) as a percentage of GDP is a key global innovation benchmark; India's has historically been below 1%.

14. Karnataka's Counterfeit Drug Racket Exposes Pharma Regulatory Gaps

Basic Concept

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and its associated Rules govern the manufacture, distribution, sale and quality standards of pharmaceuticals in India, with enforcement split between the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) at the national level and State Drug Controllers at the state level — a division of responsibility that is frequently cited as a structural weakness allowing inter-state counterfeit and substandard drug networks to operate.

Core Context

An investigation in Karnataka uncovered an inter-state racket that repackaged relabelled, expired or substandard medicines — including critical-care and cancer drugs — and supplied them to more than 90 hospitals in and around Bengaluru at roughly half the price of genuine products, marketed deceptively as discounted “premium imports.”

Latest Developments

• The racket is reported to have exploited weak batch-tracking and procurement-verification processes at hospitals, several of which unknowingly administered relabelled or expired drugs to patients undergoing critical and cancer treatment.

• The case has renewed calls for stronger track-and-trace mechanisms (such as barcoding/QR-coding of drug packaging) and tighter coordination between central and state drug regulators to close the enforcement gaps that allow such networks to operate across state lines.

• State authorities have begun action against those implicated, even as the episode highlights broader patient-safety vulnerabilities in India's decentralised pharmaceutical supply chain.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, is the primary law governing drug quality and safety in India.

• CDSCO (Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation) functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and regulates new drugs, clinical trials and drug imports.

• Under India's federal scheme, drug licensing and sale (excluding certain categories) largely falls under state jurisdiction, creating coordination challenges for inter-state offences.

• Track-and-trace/serialisation of drug packaging has been proposed periodically in India to curb counterfeit medicine circulation.

15. Deep-Sea Mining and the Precautionary Principle: India's Deep Ocean Mission

Basic Concept

India's Deep Ocean Mission, launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2021, is a multi-pronged programme to explore deep-sea resources (polymetallic nodules, poly-metallic sulphides and rare minerals), develop manned submersible and underwater vehicle technology, and study deep-sea biodiversity and climate variability. India holds exploration rights granted by the International Seabed Authority (ISA) — the UN-mandated body governing mineral resources in international waters (the “Area”) beyond national jurisdiction — in the Central Indian Ocean Basin for polymetallic nodules and along the Central Indian Ridge for polymetallic sulphides. The “precautionary principle” in environmental law holds that the absence of full scientific certainty about environmental harm should not be used as a reason to postpone measures to prevent that harm.

Core Context

An analysis by a marine biologist has cautioned that India's growing deep-sea exploration ambitions under the Deep Ocean Mission must be guided by ecological thresholds rather than resource-extraction timelines, questioning whether the strategic value of minerals such as cobalt, nickel and manganese nodules can justify disturbing seabed ecosystems whose long-term impacts remain poorly understood.

Latest Developments

• Polymetallic nodules found on the ocean floor are potato-sized mineral concretions containing manganese, nickel, cobalt and copper — all critical for battery and clean-energy technologies, making deep-sea mining strategically attractive even as its ecological consequences remain contested internationally.

• The ISA is currently negotiating a global “Mining Code” to regulate commercial-scale deep-sea mining, and India's own approach is being watched as a signal of how resource-hungry developing economies will balance extraction against ocean conservation commitments.

• The debate echoes broader tensions in India's environmental governance between developmental imperatives (self-reliance in critical minerals) and constitutional/international obligations to protect ecology, invoking Article 48A (Directive Principle on environmental protection) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty).

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• India's Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

• The International Seabed Authority (ISA), headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica, regulates mineral-related activities in international seabed areas beyond national jurisdiction.

• Polymetallic nodules are a key target of deep-sea mining, containing manganese, nickel, cobalt and copper.

• The Precautionary Principle is a recognised principle of environmental jurisprudence, also invoked by Indian courts in pollution and conservation cases.

16. Practice MCQs

Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding “default bail” under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:
1. It can be granted as a matter of right if the chargesheet is not filed within the prescribed period.
2. The maximum period within which a chargesheet must be filed under UAPA can extend up to 180 days.
3. Default bail under UAPA is available only to Indian citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Under Section 43D(2)(b) of UAPA, an accused is entitled to default/statutory bail as a matter of right if the chargesheet is not filed within 90 days (extendable up to 180 days) — this benefit applies to any accused regardless of nationality, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q2. The “basic structure” doctrine, under which secularism has been held to be an unamendable feature of the Indian Constitution, originated from which of the following cases?

• (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

• (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

• (c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

• (d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

Answer: (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the basic structure doctrine, holding that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to destroy its basic features, of which secularism was later affirmatively recognised as one (notably reaffirmed in S.R. Bommai).

Q3. Consider the following statements about Open Market Operations (OMOs) conducted by the Reserve Bank of India:
1. An OMO sale of government securities is used to absorb (drain) liquidity from the banking system.
2. OMOs are conducted only for purchasing government securities, never for selling them.
3. OMOs are distinct from repo/reverse repo operations, though both are liquidity management tools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: RBI conducts OMOs both to purchase securities (injecting liquidity) and to sell securities (absorbing/draining liquidity), so statement 2 is incorrect; OMOs and repo operations are both liquidity tools but are structurally distinct instruments.

Q4. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It regulates foreign contributions received by political parties only.

• (b) It is administered by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

• (c) It regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by persons and associations in India.

• (d) It was enacted for the first time in 2010.

Answer: (c) It regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by persons and associations in India.

Explanation: FCRA regulates foreign contributions received by individuals, associations and NGOs (not only political parties), is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, and was first enacted in 1976, with a comprehensive re-enactment in 2010.

Q5. The International Seabed Authority (ISA), which grants exploration rights for deep-sea mineral resources such as polymetallic nodules, operates under the framework of which international instrument?

• (a) The Convention on Biological Diversity

• (b) The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

• (c) The Ramsar Convention

• (d) The Basel Convention

Answer: (b) The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

Explanation: The ISA was established under UNCLOS (1982) to organise, regulate and control mineral-resource-related activities in the international seabed Area beyond national jurisdiction.

Q6. Consider the following pairs:
Country – Recent development mentioned in the news
1. Maldives – Repaid a $150-million loan facility routed through SBI treasury bills
2. Denmark – Reached a new security agreement with the US concerning Greenland
3. Canada – Concluded the fourth round of CEPA talks with India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched based on the week's developments: the Maldives cleared its $150-million SBI-routed loan to India, the US and Denmark reached a new Greenland security agreement, and India and Canada concluded the fourth round of CEPA negotiations in Mumbai.