Current Affairs — 22 September 2026

1. India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement to Come Into Force

Basic Concept

A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is a treaty between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate tariffs, quotas, and other trade barriers on goods and services traded between them. India has been pursuing a strategy of concluding bilateral FTAs (with the UAE, Australia, EFTA, UK, and now New Zealand) as multilateral trade negotiations at the WTO remain stalled, while being cautious about the scope of concessions on agriculture and services to protect sensitive domestic sectors.

Core Context

The India–New Zealand FTA, concluded after several rounds of negotiation, will formally take effect on 20 October 2026. Under the agreement, 100% of India's exports to New Zealand will receive duty-free access, while India has retained protection for sensitive sectors such as dairy.

Latest Developments

• The two sides aim to more than double bilateral trade, with a target of about ₹35,000 crore in two-way commerce.

• The deal is also expected to unlock roughly $20 billion in New Zealand's pension and sovereign investment flows into India over time.

• Officials frame the pact as complementing India's existing FTAs with Australia and the UK in deepening ties with the Indo-Pacific/Oceania region.

• Dairy, a politically sensitive sector for Indian farmers, has reportedly been excluded or heavily restricted from tariff concessions, mirroring India's approach in other recent FTAs.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The India–New Zealand FTA takes effect on 20 October 2026.

• India offers 100% duty-free access to New Zealand's exports of comparable value under the pact's terms for Indian goods.

• India has previously signed comparable FTAs with the UAE (CEPA), Australia (ECTA/CECA), EFTA (TEPA), and the UK.

• Dairy remains a consistently protected/excluded sector in India's recent trade agreements.

2. WHO's New Report on Ethics Oversight of AI-Related Health Research

Basic Concept

As artificial intelligence (AI) tools increasingly enter healthcare — from diagnostic algorithms to AI-assisted drug discovery and health-research data analysis — questions of research ethics (informed consent, data privacy, non-maleficence, justice) that traditionally governed clinical trials now extend to how AI systems are trained, validated, and deployed on human health data. Research Ethics Committees (RECs)/Institutional Ethics Committees, which review and approve human-subject research, were designed for conventional trial protocols and are often ill-equipped to evaluate opaque, continuously-updating AI systems.

Core Context

The World Health Organization (WHO) released a new report calling for stronger and more continuous ('contemporaneous') ethics oversight of AI-related health research, arguing that oversight cannot be a one-time approval at the start of a study but must track an AI system through its full lifecycle as it learns and changes.

Latest Developments

• The report flags algorithmic bias (where AI systems trained on unrepresentative data produce discriminatory health outcomes) as a central ethical risk.

• It highlights data privacy violations arising from large-scale health-data aggregation needed to train AI models.

• It cautions against automation risk — over-reliance on AI outputs by clinicians and researchers without adequate human oversight.

• It flags the exploitation of low-wage data-labelling and annotation workers, often in the Global South, who prepare training datasets for AI health systems.

• The report calls for shared, ongoing responsibility across researchers, ethics committees, funders, and regulators rather than oversight resting with any single actor.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The WHO report addresses ethics oversight specifically for AI-related health research.

• It recommends lifecycle-based (continuous/contemporaneous) oversight rather than one-time approval.

• Key concerns flagged: algorithmic bias, data privacy, automation risk, and worker exploitation in AI data pipelines.

3. PM-AJAY: Convergent Development for Scheduled Castes

Basic Concept

The Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment that merged three earlier schemes — the Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan, the Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (hostels), and the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY, village development) — into a single umbrella scheme for the holistic socio-economic upliftment of Scheduled Caste (SC) communities.

Core Context

The scheme's cumulative progress data continues to be cited in Parliament and by the Ministry to highlight convergent, last-mile development in SC-dominated villages, positioning it as important background/static content for GS2 Social Justice questions on welfare-scheme architecture.

Latest Developments

• Over ₹11,186 crore has been released since the scheme's predecessor components began, covering village development, livelihood support, and educational infrastructure.

• The Adarsh Gram component targets villages with more than 50% SC population for saturation of basic amenities — roads, drinking water, health, education, and livelihoods.

• The scheme also funds Ambedkar Bhawans/Community Centres and skill-development components alongside hostel infrastructure for SC students.

• It reflects the broader trend of consolidating fragmented central schemes into converged, outcome-tracked umbrella programmes.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• PM-AJAY falls under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

• It merged three schemes: SCA to SCSP, Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana.

• The Adarsh Gram component targets villages with SC population above 50%.

4. 9th India International Water Week: Climate-Resilient Water Governance

Basic Concept

Water is a state subject under the Indian Constitution (Entry 17, State List), though inter-state rivers and water disputes fall under the Union List, making cooperative and integrated water governance a persistent institutional challenge. Concepts central to modern water policy include Integrated Water Resources Management (IWRM), decentralised solutions such as rainwater harvesting and wastewater/greywater reuse, and treating water as a finite, shared resource rather than an infinite input, especially as climate change alters rainfall variability and groundwater recharge patterns.

Core Context

The 9th edition of the India International Water Week (IIWW) 2026, India's flagship global water-sector event, began on 22 September at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, inaugurated by the Vice-President and formally launched by the Union Minister for Jal Shakti. The event's central theme this year is climate-resilient water management.

Latest Developments

• The event brought together policymakers, international water experts, and industry stakeholders to discuss integrated water governance, policy convergence across ministries, and community-based decentralised solutions.

• Emphasis was placed on rainwater harvesting, wastewater treatment and reuse, and groundwater recharge as tools for climate resilience.

• The Jal Shakti Ministry used the platform to showcase India's flagship water missions, including the Jal Jeevan Mission and Atal Bhujal Yojana, within the broader climate-resilience narrative.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• India International Water Week (IIWW) 2026 is its 9th edition, held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

• Water is a State List subject (Entry 17); inter-state river water disputes fall under the Union List.

• IWRM stands for Integrated Water Resources Management.

5. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve: A New Benchmark in Floral Diversity

Basic Concept

Biosphere Reserves are internationally designated conservation areas (under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere Programme) that balance biodiversity conservation with sustainable human use, organised into core, buffer, and transition zones. The Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve, spanning the southern Western Ghats across Tamil Nadu and Kerala, is part of the globally recognised Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot and shares strong floral affinities with Sri Lanka due to their shared geological and biogeographic history.

Core Context

A comprehensive scientific checklist has documented 3,261 flowering plant species within the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve, of which 31.2% are endemic to India, underscoring the reserve's exceptional and globally significant floral diversity.

Latest Developments

• The high endemism rate reflects the Western Ghats' status as one of the world's eight 'hottest' biodiversity hotspots.

• The study strengthens the scientific case for continued conservation prioritisation of the southern Western Ghats landscape.

• The reserve's flora shows strong biogeographic connections with Sri Lanka, a pattern attributed to the ancient Western Ghats–Sri Lanka floristic link.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve straddles Tamil Nadu and Kerala in the southern Western Ghats.

• It has recorded 3,261 flowering plant species, with 31.2% endemism.

• The Western Ghats is one of the world's biodiversity hotspots and a UNESCO World Heritage Site (as a serial site).

6. Exercise Nomadic Elephant 2026: India–Mongolia Defence Cooperation

Basic Concept

India conducts a wide array of bilateral and multilateral military exercises with partner nations to build interoperability, exchange best practices, and strengthen strategic ties. Exercise Nomadic Elephant is a bilateral Army-level exercise between India and Mongolia, held alternately in each country, and forms part of India's broader defence engagement with Central and East Asian partners under its 'Act East' and extended-neighbourhood outreach.

Core Context

The 18th edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant commenced on 21 September 2026 at Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, and will run until 3 October 2026, with both armies deploying about 45 personnel each, India's contingent drawn primarily from the Arunachal Scouts battalion.

Latest Developments

• The exercise focuses on counter-insurgency operations in semi-urban and mountainous terrain, conducted under a United Nations peacekeeping mandate framework.

• Training modules include cordon-and-search operations, room-intervention drills, special heliborne operations, cyber-security training, and drone and counter-drone operations.

• The exercise reflects the growing salience of hybrid and technology-enabled warfare skills (drones, cyber) even in traditional counter-insurgency training.

• India separately deployed naval assets, INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish, to the Philippines to participate in ADMM-Plus (ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting-Plus) related engagements, reflecting India's simultaneous outreach across its extended neighbourhood.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Exercise Nomadic Elephant 2026 is the 18th edition, held at Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand (21 Sept–3 Oct 2026).

• It is a bilateral India–Mongolia Army exercise, hosted alternately by each country.

• India's contingent was drawn from the Arunachal Scouts battalion.

• ADMM-Plus is the ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting-Plus, involving ASEAN and eight dialogue partners including India.

7. Supreme Court Strikes Down Maharashtra's Methanol Denaturing Rules

Basic Concept

Under Articles 14 (equality before law) and 19(1)(g) (right to practise any profession, trade, or business) of the Constitution, restrictions imposed by the State on trade and business must satisfy the test of reasonableness and proportionality — meaning the restriction must have a rational nexus with a legitimate state aim and must not be excessive or disproportionate to that aim. Methanol is an industrial alcohol used in the chemical, pharmaceutical, and paint industries, distinct from ethanol (potable/drinking alcohol); denaturing rules typically require additives (bitterants/colourants) to make industrial alcohol unfit for consumption and prevent its diversion into illicit liquor.

Core Context

The Supreme Court struck down Maharashtra's rules (framed 14 years ago) mandating that methanol be denatured with bitterants and colourants before sale, ruling that the restrictions were manifestly arbitrary and failed the test of proportionality under Articles 14 and 19(1)(g).

Latest Developments

• The Court held that the rules placed a disproportionate compliance burden on lawful methanol-based industries without demonstrably preventing hooch (illicit liquor) tragedies, which typically involve diverted ethanol, not industrial methanol.

• The judgment referenced the Gujarat hooch tragedy while distinguishing the source of such tragedies from the methanol trade being regulated.

• The ruling reinforces the constitutional principle that even measures with a legitimate aim (preventing illicit-liquor deaths) must be proportionate and evidence-based, not sweeping.

• The case (2026 INSC 1009) is significant as a recent application of the proportionality doctrine to economic/trade regulation.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The judgment is cited as 2026 INSC 1009.

• The Court invoked Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) to strike down the rules.

• Methanol is industrial alcohol, distinct from ethanol (potable alcohol).

8. Supreme Court: Written Grounds of Arrest Mandatory Even Under UAPA

Basic Concept

Article 22 of the Constitution guarantees every arrested person the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of choice. The Supreme Court has, in a series of judgments (including Pankaj Bansal and Vihaan Kumar), progressively strengthened this safeguard by requiring that grounds of arrest be communicated in writing, not merely orally, so that the arrested person can effectively challenge the arrest before a court. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), India's principal anti-terror law, has stringent bail provisions, making procedural safeguards at the arrest stage especially significant for accused persons.

Core Context

The Supreme Court ruled that written grounds of arrest are mandatory even in cases registered under the UAPA, and further held that if a person is found to have been illegally arrested, any subsequent re-arrest requires prior judicial (magistrate's) authorisation.

Latest Developments

• The Court clarified that procedural safeguards under Article 22 cannot be diluted merely because a case involves a stringent special law like UAPA.

• Failure to furnish written grounds of arrest can itself render an arrest illegal and entitle the accused to release.

• The ruling on re-arrest closes a potential loophole where authorities could re-arrest a person immediately after a court found the original arrest illegal, without fresh judicial scrutiny.

• The judgment continues a consistent line of Supreme Court jurisprudence tightening arrest-related procedural safeguards across ordinary and special criminal laws.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• UAPA stands for the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, India's principal anti-terror legislation.

• Article 22 provides for the right to be informed of grounds of arrest and to consult a legal practitioner.

• The ruling makes written (not oral) grounds of arrest mandatory even in UAPA cases.

• Re-arrest after a finding of illegal arrest now requires prior magistrate authorisation.

9. India's Economic Indicators: Record FCNR(B) Inflows and a New GDP Deflation Methodology

Basic Concept

FCNR(B) (Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank) deposits allow Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to hold fixed deposits in foreign currency in Indian banks, insulating depositors from rupee exchange-rate fluctuations and providing banks with a stable pool of foreign-currency funding; the RBI periodically opens special swap windows to attract such inflows and support the rupee. Separately, GDP (Gross Domestic Product) estimation methodology in India, overseen by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), was recently revised with a new base year of 2022-23, introducing 'double deflation' — a more accurate technique that deflates output and inputs separately using distinct price indices, rather than applying a single deflator to value added.

Core Context

The RBI's special swap window drew about $143.5 billion in total inflows, with FCNR(B) deposits alone reaching close to $133 billion, among the largest such mobilisations on record, helping shore up bank funding and the rupee's stability amid global refinancing pressures. Separately, MoSPI clarified that its new GDP series applies the double-deflation technique to 28 of 30 manufacturing categories, refining how real (inflation-adjusted) manufacturing growth is measured, including addressing questions around a negative manufacturing deflator seen in recent quarterly estimates.

Latest Developments

• Double deflation improves accuracy by separately deflating gross output and intermediate inputs, rather than using a single blended deflator, which is especially important for volatile sectors like manufacturing.

• The new GDP series uses 2022-23 as its base year, replacing the earlier base year, aligning India's national accounts with updated economic structure and price data.

• A near-record FCNR(B)/swap-window mobilisation strengthens India's foreign exchange reserves and eases pressure on the rupee amid global monetary tightening cycles.

• MoSPI's public clarification on methodology reflects efforts at greater transparency in explaining unusual quarterly GDP/GVA movements to economists and the public.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• FCNR(B) stands for Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposits.

• The RBI's special swap window mobilised about $143.5 billion; FCNR(B) deposits alone were close to $133 billion.

• MoSPI is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

• The new GDP series uses base year 2022-23 and applies double deflation to 28 of 30 manufacturing categories.

10. India's Coal-Fired Power Plants Face a Fuel Stock Crisis

Basic Concept

Coal remains the backbone of India's electricity generation, accounting for roughly half of installed capacity and a majority of actual power generated. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) monitors coal stock levels at thermal power plants and classifies them by 'days of stock remaining' relative to normative requirements, with plants below a critical threshold flagged as being at risk of generation disruption, particularly significant during periods of peak demand such as the pre-winter and festive season.

Core Context

Government data shows that nearly 40% of India's coal-based power plants are running critically low on fuel stock, raising concerns about electricity supply reliability as demand rises ahead of the festive season.

Latest Developments

• Reasons cited include logistical bottlenecks in coal transportation (rail rake availability), production shortfalls at Coal India-operated mines, and rising electricity demand outpacing stock replenishment.

• A sustained coal shortfall raises the risk of load-shedding or increased reliance on costlier imported coal and alternative generation sources.

• The situation renews debate on diversifying India's energy mix and accelerating renewable-plus-storage capacity to reduce dependence on a single fuel source for base-load power.

• Government assurances have emphasised that coal supply is being ramped up and that the situation is being closely monitored to avoid a repeat of past coal-crisis episodes.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) monitors thermal plant coal-stock adequacy in India.

• Coal accounts for roughly half of India's installed power capacity and the majority of actual generation.

• Nearly 40% of coal power plants were reported critically low on fuel stock in September 2026.

11. Delhi's Rooftop Solar Citizen-Registration Portal

Basic Concept

The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana is a central scheme launched to promote rooftop solar adoption by households, offering central financial assistance (subsidy) to reduce upfront installation costs and enable eligible households to receive significant amounts of free electricity. States implement complementary schemes and registration mechanisms to accelerate adoption at the local level, particularly to benefit low-consumption households who otherwise pay minimal electricity bills but could still benefit from solar generation and net-metering.

Core Context

The Delhi government launched a citizen-registration portal to enable households to sign up for free rooftop solar panels under a scheme building on the central PM Surya Ghar Yojana, targeting roughly 2.3 lakh (225,000) households, with an additional state subsidy taking total support up to about ₹1.56 lakh per household.

Latest Developments

• The scheme specifically targets households with low monthly electricity consumption (around 400 units or less), who are otherwise less likely to independently invest in solar installation.

• The additional state-level top-up subsidy is meant to make the effective cost of installation near-zero for eligible households.

• The initiative is framed as advancing India's renewable-energy and net-zero commitments at the city level while also easing the electricity subsidy burden on the Delhi government over the long term.

• Registered households will be linked to empanelled vendors for installation, with net-metering enabling any surplus power generated to be fed back to the grid.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The scheme builds on the central PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana.

• It targets about 2.3 lakh (225,000) Delhi households.

• Combined subsidy support can go up to about ₹1.56 lakh per household.

12. Community Resource Persons: The Backbone of Rural Last-Mile Delivery

Basic Concept

The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM/Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-NRLM) organises rural women into Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and their federations to promote livelihoods, financial inclusion, and social empowerment. A key institutional innovation under this framework is the Community Resource Person (CRP) model — successful SHG members trained to become trainers and mentors for other women and communities, extending government outreach far beyond what regular administrative staff alone could achieve, drawing on models pioneered by programmes like Kerala's Kudumbashree.

Core Context

Government data highlights that a grassroots network of over 9 lakh trained Community Resource Persons now underpins last-mile delivery of government schemes across livelihoods, health, nutrition, sanitation, housing, water security, and financial inclusion in rural India.

Latest Developments

• CRPs are drawn from existing SHG members and trained to replicate their own successful livelihood or social practices in other villages, creating a peer-to-peer extension model.

• The model reduces dependence on thinly-stretched government field staff and improves the credibility and last-mile reach of scheme delivery, since CRPs are community members themselves.

• CRP deployment spans multiple sectors beyond livelihoods, including health and nutrition counselling, sanitation behaviour-change communication, and financial-literacy support.

• The approach is cited as a scalable governance innovation relevant to debates on effective, low-cost last-mile public service delivery in India.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Community Resource Persons (CRPs) operate under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) framework.

• India's grassroots CRP network now exceeds 9 lakh trained personnel.

• Kerala's Kudumbashree is a well-known precursor/model for the SHG-CRP approach.

13. Rising Antifungal Resistance: The Candida auris Challenge

Basic Concept

Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) — the ability of microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites) to survive exposure to drugs that would normally kill them or stop their growth — is recognised by the WHO as one of the top global public health threats. While antibiotic (bacterial) resistance receives the most attention, antifungal resistance is an emerging and under-recognised dimension of the same problem. Candida auris is a fungal pathogen first identified in 2009 that has since spread globally, is often resistant to multiple classes of antifungal drugs, spreads readily in hospital intensive-care settings, and disproportionately affects immunocompromised patients.

Core Context

Public-health experts and researchers continue to highlight the growing global and Indian challenge of antifungal drug resistance, with Candida auris emerging as a particular concern as scientists reconsider existing antifungal treatment strategies amid its spread and evolving resistance patterns.

Latest Developments

• Candida auris is notable for being difficult to identify with standard laboratory methods and for surviving on hospital surfaces for extended periods, enabling outbreaks in ICUs.

• Contributing factors to rising fungal resistance include widespread agricultural fungicide use (creating cross-resistance), climate change (potentially helping fungi adapt to higher human body temperatures), and overuse of antifungal drugs in clinical settings.

• The limited pipeline of new antifungal drug classes, compared to antibacterial drugs, makes resistant fungal infections especially difficult to treat.

• Global health bodies have called for strengthened surveillance, infection-control protocols in hospitals, and research investment into novel antifungal agents.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Candida auris was first identified in 2009 and has since spread to multiple countries.

• AMR (Antimicrobial Resistance) includes resistance in bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, not just antibiotics.

• WHO recognises AMR as one of the top global public health threats.

14. 72nd National Film Awards and India's Recognition at Toronto

Basic Concept

The National Film Awards, instituted in 1954 and presented annually by the Directorate of Film Festivals (Ministry of Information and Broadcasting), are India's most prestigious state-sponsored film honours, recognising excellence in Indian cinema across languages. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award, the highest honour in the ceremony, is conferred for outstanding contribution to Indian cinema and is named after Dadasaheb Phalke, regarded as the father of Indian cinema for his pioneering 1913 feature film Raja Harishchandra.

Core Context

The President of India presented the 72nd National Film Awards at Ekta Nagar (Statue of Unity), Gujarat, conferring the Dadasaheb Phalke Award on veteran actor Anant Nag, while the Hindi film Article 370 won the Best Feature Film award; separately, a Nagaland filmmaker's debut film Angh won the Platform Prize at the Toronto International Film Festival.

Latest Developments

• Yami Gautam won the Best Actress award for her role in Article 370.

• Mammootty and Kartik Aaryan shared the Best Actor award.

• The awards ceremony, usually held in New Delhi, was hosted this year at Ekta Nagar in Gujarat, home to the Statue of Unity.

• The Toronto win for the Nagaland-set/directed debut film Angh highlights growing international recognition for films from India's Northeast, an region historically underrepresented in mainstream Indian and global cinema.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The 72nd National Film Awards were presented at Ekta Nagar, Gujarat.

• Anant Nag received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, India's highest cinema honour.

• Article 370 won Best Feature Film; Yami Gautam won Best Actress for the same film.

• Angh, a Nagaland filmmaker's debut, won the Platform Prize at the Toronto International Film Festival.

15. Practice MCQs

Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement:
1. It will come into force on 20 October 2026.
2. It provides for 100% duty-free access for New Zealand's dairy exports to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The FTA takes effect on 20 October 2026 and provides 100% duty-free access for Indian exports to New Zealand, but India has kept dairy — a politically sensitive sector — protected/excluded from tariff concessions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q2. The recently released WHO report on ethics oversight of AI-related health research recommends which of the following approaches?

• (a) A one-time ethics approval at the start of the research project, similar to conventional clinical trials

• (b) Continuous, lifecycle-based oversight that tracks an AI system as it learns and changes

• (c) Exclusive oversight authority vested solely in national drug regulators

• (d) Complete exemption of AI health-research tools from ethics committee review

Answer: (b) Continuous, lifecycle-based oversight that tracks an AI system as it learns and changes

Explanation: The WHO report specifically argues that because AI systems continuously learn and update, ethics oversight cannot be a one-time approval as in conventional trials; it must be continuous/contemporaneous across the AI system's lifecycle, with shared responsibility among researchers, ethics committees, funders, and regulators.

Q3. Consider the following statements about PM-AJAY:
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. It merges the Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan and the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana, among other schemes.
3. Its Adarsh Gram component targets villages with more than 50% Scheduled Caste population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: PM-AJAY is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and merges the SCA to SCSP, the Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana, and the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana. Its Adarsh Gram (village development) component targets villages where the SC population exceeds 50%. All three statements are correct.

Q4. With reference to Exercise Nomadic Elephant, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a bilateral military exercise between India and Mongolia.
2. It is hosted alternately by both countries.
3. Its focus in 2026 included counter-insurgency operations, cyber security, and drone/counter-drone training.
Select the correct answer using the code below.

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Exercise Nomadic Elephant is a bilateral India–Mongolia Army exercise, hosted alternately by each country. The 18th edition (2026), held at Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, focused on counter-insurgency operations in semi-urban and mountainous terrain, along with cyber security and drone/counter-drone training, under a UN peacekeeping mandate framework.

Q5. The Supreme Court recently struck down Maharashtra's rules mandating denaturing of methanol primarily on the ground that they:

• (a) Violated the right to equality and the right to trade under Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) by failing the test of proportionality

• (b) Encroached upon the Union List subject of inter-state trade and commerce

• (c) Were inconsistent with a central law enacted under a Concurrent List entry

• (d) Violated the fundamental right to life under Article 21 of persons employed in the methanol industry

Answer: (a) Violated the right to equality and the right to trade under Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) by failing the test of proportionality

Explanation: The Supreme Court held that Maharashtra's methanol-denaturing rules were manifestly arbitrary and disproportionate, violating Articles 14 (equality) and 19(1)(g) (freedom of trade and profession), since they burdened lawful industry without a demonstrated connection to preventing hooch tragedies.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent ruling on arrest safeguards:
1. Written grounds of arrest are now mandatory even in cases under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
2. Re-arrest of a person, after a court has found the original arrest illegal, now requires prior judicial authorisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Supreme Court ruled that Article 22 safeguards — including written (not merely oral) communication of the grounds of arrest — apply even in UAPA cases, and that any re-arrest following a judicial finding of illegal arrest requires prior authorisation from a magistrate, closing a potential procedural loophole.

Q7. With reference to India's new GDP estimation series, consider the following statements:
1. It uses 2022-23 as the new base year.
2. It applies 'double deflation' to all 30 manufacturing categories without exception.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The new GDP series released by MoSPI uses 2022-23 as its base year. However, double deflation (separately deflating output and inputs using distinct price indices) is applied to 28 of 30 manufacturing categories, not all 30, so statement 2 is incorrect.