Current Affairs — 27 September 2026

1. Nationwide Bank Strike (28–30 September 2026) and Special Sunday Banking

Basic Concept

Trade unions in India enjoy a constitutionally protected right to strike under the freedom of association guaranteed by Article 19(1)(c), though this right is subject to reasonable restrictions and to sector-specific service regulations. In the banking sector, employees are organised under umbrella bodies such as the United Forum of Bank Unions (UFBU), a joint platform of nine bank employees' and officers' unions. Bank strikes typically arise from disputes over wage revision, staffing levels, pension schemes, or opposition to structural reforms such as privatisation or the corporatisation of public sector banks (PSBs). Because banking is treated as an essential-adjacent service, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the government often take administrative measures to cushion the public impact of a strike, without curtailing the legal right to strike itself.

Core Context

The UFBU gave a call for a nationwide bank strike spanning three consecutive days, 28–30 September 2026, to press demands related to working conditions and opposition to certain banking-sector reforms. Since this three-day stoppage would have followed immediately after a weekend, effectively creating a five-day banking shutdown when combined with the preceding Saturday and Sunday, the government and the RBI announced that all Public Sector Banks and Regional Rural Banks would function normally on Sunday, 27 September 2026, as a one-time exception, to help customers complete urgent transactions before the strike began.

Latest Developments

• The special Sunday working arrangement covered branches, ATMs, and related banking facilities across PSBs and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) on 27 September 2026.

• Several PSBs additionally announced a temporary waiver of charges on ATM transactions beyond the free monthly limit, to ease cash access during the strike window.

• Private sector banks were not bound by the UFBU call and were expected to function normally through the strike period, partially cushioning the impact on customers.

• Services likely to be affected during the actual strike days (28–30 September) include cheque clearing, over-the-counter cash transactions, and loan processing, while ATM, net-banking, and UPI services generally continue since they are not directly dependent on staff attendance.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• UFBU is a joint platform of nine bank unions, including officers' associations and employees' unions.

• The right to form associations/unions is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(4).

• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established under the RRB Act, 1976, and are jointly owned by the Centre, sponsor bank, and the concerned state government.

2. Election Commission Independence Crisis: Dissent Notes Over Electoral Rolls

Basic Concept

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a three-member body (one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners) constituted under Article 324 of the Constitution to superintend, direct, and control elections. Since the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the selection committee for appointing Election Commissioners comprises the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister — a composition that replaced the earlier inclusion of the Chief Justice of India following the Anoop Baranwal judgment (2023). Electoral roll preparation is governed by the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and Form 6 is the prescribed form for a new voter's application for inclusion in the electoral roll.

Core Context

Two sitting Election Commissioners reportedly filed formal dissent notes within the Commission, objecting to what they viewed as excessive centralisation of control over electoral roll preparation and to changes made to Form 6 without a corresponding amendment to the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960. The disagreement surfaced against the backdrop of the ongoing Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls and complaints of large-scale exclusions and pending appeals in states such as West Bengal and Goa.

Latest Developments

• Reports indicated roughly 38 lakh appeals pending in West Bengal relating to roll entries, alongside smaller but symbolically significant exclusions, such as 97 voters reportedly dropped from rolls in Goa.

• Recently, the Commission separately simplified voter enrolment by removing the requirement for an additional declaration form for new voters after the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process, a move welcomed as reducing procedural burden even as the roll-preparation dispute continued.

• Constitutional experts point out that the ECI functions on the principle of collegial decision-making, and public dissent by sitting Commissioners is rare, making this episode significant for the ongoing debate on the institutional independence and internal functioning of the Election Commission.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Article 324 vests the "superintendence, direction and control" of elections in the Election Commission of India.

• The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 governs the appointment process following the Supreme Court's Anoop Baranwal v Union of India (2023) verdict.

• Electoral rolls are prepared under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1950; Form 6 is used for new voter registration.

3. Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Challenged in Supreme Court

Basic Concept

The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 had operationalised the Supreme Court's landmark NALSA v Union of India (2014) judgment, which recognised transgender persons as a "third gender" and affirmed their right to self-perceived gender identity without requiring surgery or medical proof. The 2019 Act provided for a certificate of identity to be issued by the District Magistrate based on a self-declaration, later supplemented by a National Council for Transgender Persons to advise the government on welfare policy. Any dilution of the self-identification principle raises questions under Article 21 (right to life and personal dignity) and Article 14 (equality before law).

Core Context

A 2026 amendment to the Act reportedly removed the self-perceived gender identity standard and redefined "transgender person" with reference to physiological characteristics, prompting a Supreme Court challenge on the ground that it violates the dignity and autonomy protected under Article 21, as interpreted in NALSA. In the ongoing proceedings, Andhra Pradesh informed the Court that it would not defend the Centre's amendment, while Uttarakhand chose to defend it — an unusual instance of two states taking opposing positions on a central law's amendment before the same bench.

Latest Developments

• Andhra Pradesh's own data on transgender identity cards showed 3,750 applications received, of which 3,233 were certified, 403 filtered out, and 114 left pending — figures cited in the hearing to illustrate implementation on the ground.

• Members of the National Council for Transgender Persons reportedly resigned in protest against the amendment, signalling institutional pushback beyond the litigation itself.

• The Supreme Court has so far stopped short of staying the amendment while the substantive constitutional challenge remains pending, meaning the amended definition continues to operate for now.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• NALSA v Union of India (2014) recognised transgender persons as a third gender and the right to self-perceived gender identity.

• The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 provides for identity certificates issued by the District Magistrate.

• The National Council for Transgender Persons is a statutory advisory body constituted under the 2019 Act.

4. Jammu & Kashmir Assembly's Statehood Resolution

Basic Concept

The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, enacted after the abrogation of Article 370's special status provisions, bifurcated the erstwhile state into two Union Territories — Jammu & Kashmir (with a legislature) and Ladakh (without one) — with effect from 31 October 2019. In December 2023, the Supreme Court in its verdict on Article 370 upheld the abrogation but recorded the Union Government's assurance that statehood would be restored to Jammu & Kashmir "at the earliest," without fixing a binding timeline. Jammu & Kashmir has since held Assembly elections (2024) and functions as a Union Territory with a directly elected legislature, though key subjects such as police and public order remain with the Lieutenant Governor.

Core Context

Chief Minister Omar Abdullah moved a resolution in the Jammu & Kashmir Legislative Assembly seeking the restoration of full statehood, citing the Supreme Court's 2023 observations and the Union Government's own past assurances. The move triggered strong protests from the opposition benches, leading to repeated adjournments of the House amid sloganeering, with the ruckus continuing into the following sessions as the resolution remained under discussion.

Latest Developments

• The Leader of Opposition in the J&K Assembly met the Union Home Minister to discuss the statehood demand, reflecting the issue's escalation beyond the Assembly floor to the Centre.

• The ruling party frames the resolution as fulfilling an electoral mandate and a constitutional commitment, while opposition members have objected to its timing, wording, or political framing, leading to repeated disruptions.

• The demand comes even as security-related subjects and the Lieutenant Governor's powers remain outside the elected government's direct control under the current Union Territory framework.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into effect on 31 October 2019.

• The Supreme Court's December 2023 verdict upheld the abrogation of Article 370's special provisions.

• Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislature, unlike Jammu & Kashmir, which has an elected Assembly.

5. Andhra Pradesh High Court Settles the Three-Capitals Dispute

Basic Concept

Following the bifurcation of the composite state of Andhra Pradesh under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, the state was left without a capital, as Hyderabad went to the newly formed Telangana. A subsequent state government had proposed a "three capitals" model — Amaravati (legislative), Visakhapatnam (executive), and Kurnool (judicial) — through the Andhra Pradesh Decentralisation Act, 2020, which was challenged in court and later withdrawn by the state itself. A change in state government thereafter recommitted to developing Amaravati as the sole capital, amending the earlier Reorganisation-linked capital framework accordingly.

Core Context

The Andhra Pradesh High Court held that the pending petitions challenging the erstwhile three-capitals plan had become infructuous (i.e., without practical purpose), since the state had already amended the law to make Amaravati the sole capital and abandoned the decentralisation plan in practice. The Court had earlier, in March 2022, directed the state government to complete the development of the Amaravati capital region.

Latest Developments

• Separate appeals against the March 2022 Amaravati judgment are listed for hearing before the Supreme Court on 29 November.

• The state government has filed an affidavit committing to a three-year timeline for completing capital-region infrastructure at Amaravati.

• The episode illustrates the constitutional principle that a state's choice of capital is essentially a matter of state policy and legislative competence, subject to judicial review only on grounds of legality and process, not policy wisdom.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 bifurcated the state into Telangana and residuary Andhra Pradesh.

• "Infructuous" in legal usage means a petition or proceeding that has lost its practical purpose or subject matter.

• Amaravati is located on the banks of the Krishna river in Andhra Pradesh's Guntur district.

6. India's Right of Reply to Pakistan at the UN General Assembly

Basic Concept

The UN General Assembly's annual high-level General Debate allows member states to address global issues, and the "Right of Reply" is a procedural mechanism permitting a state to respond, typically at the end of the day's proceedings, to remarks made about it by another delegation. India has consistently used this platform to respond to references made by Pakistan on Jammu & Kashmir and cross-border terrorism, reiterating that Jammu & Kashmir is an integral part of India and that terrorism sponsored from across the border is a core security concern.

Core Context

External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar, in his UNGA address, criticised Pakistan as a "serial practitioner" of cross-border terrorism and asserted India's right to defend itself against terrorism, in response to remarks by the Pakistani Prime Minister referencing Operation Sindoor — India's May 2025 military response to the Pahalgam terror attack. India's delegation exercised its Right of Reply, with a junior diplomat rejecting Pakistan's narrative and describing it as acting as a "puppet" regime.

Latest Developments

• Operation Sindoor was launched on 7 May 2025 following the Pahalgam terror attack of 22 April 2025, in which 26 civilians were killed.

• India has kept the Indus Waters Treaty (1960) in abeyance since the Pahalgam attack, linking the treaty's normal functioning to Pakistan's credible and irreversible steps against cross-border terrorism.

• India's statement reiterated that dialogue and terror cannot go together, a position India has maintained consistently at multilateral forums since the 2016 Uri attack.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The "Right of Reply" is a UN procedural device, not a treaty-based right, and is generally exercised at the close of a day's General Debate session.

• The Indus Waters Treaty was signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank.

• The Pahalgam terror attack (22 April 2025) preceded India's Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025).

7. Bangladesh–United States Civil Nuclear Cooperation MoU

Basic Concept

Civil nuclear cooperation agreements between states typically cover safety, security, and non-proliferation safeguards for the peaceful use of nuclear energy, distinct from military or strategic nuclear cooperation. Bangladesh's sole nuclear power project, the Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant, is being built with Russian assistance using VVER-1200 pressurised water reactors, and is set to be Bangladesh's first nuclear power facility. India has a limited but notable role in the project through a 2018 India–Russia–Bangladesh trilateral memorandum, under which Indian companies participate in non-critical construction work and training of Bangladeshi personnel.

Core Context

Bangladesh and the United States signed a memorandum of understanding on civil nuclear cooperation in New York, on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly session, focused on strengthening safety, security, safeguards, and non-proliferation cooperation rather than reactor construction itself.

Latest Developments

• The MoU was signed by Bangladesh's foreign secretary-level representative and a senior US official, reflecting a broader US push to expand civil nuclear partnerships in South Asia.

• The agreement does not replace or compete with the Russian-built Rooppur project but adds a parallel safety-and-safeguards cooperation track with Washington.

• For India, the development is relevant because of its existing tripartite role in Rooppur and its own interest in expanding civil nuclear cooperation with international partners under IAEA safeguards.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant is Bangladesh's first nuclear power facility, built with Russian assistance.

• VVER-1200 is a Russian-designed pressurised water reactor model.

• India, Russia, and Bangladesh signed a trilateral MoU in 2018 for Indian participation in the Rooppur project.

8. Centre Notifies Four "Mega Ports" Under the Indian Ports Act, 2025

Basic Concept

The Indian Ports Act, 2025 replaced the colonial-era Indian Ports Act, 1908, to create a modern, unified regulatory framework for both major and non-major ports, including provisions for a Maritime State Development Council and a mechanism to designate large ports with strategic and economic significance as "mega ports" for focused infrastructure investment and streamlined governance. Ports in India are classified as "major ports" (administered by the Centre, historically through statutory Port Trusts or Port Authorities) and "non-major ports" (falling under state jurisdiction, though several handle very high cargo volumes).

Core Context

The Central Government notified four ports — Deendayal Port (Kandla), Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (Nhava Sheva), Paradip Port, and Mundra Port — as "mega ports" under the new Act. Deendayal Port and JNPA, both major ports, were notified under Section 73(2) of the Act, while Mundra, a non-major port operated by a private developer, was notified under the distinct Section 73(3) route applicable to non-major ports of national significance.

Latest Developments

• The eligibility criteria for mega-port status were notified on 30 July 2026 after consultation with state governments, and the actual notification of the four ports followed on 25 September 2026.

• Separately, Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) signed an MoU with Synergy Group, a shipping management company managing over 750 vessels and 32,000-plus seafarers, to collaborate on shipbuilding, ship repair, and ship conversion, including converting LNG carriers into floating storage and regasification units (FSRUs).

• Mega-port status is expected to unlock dedicated funding and faster project clearances, supporting India's broader push to expand port-linked manufacturing and logistics capacity under the maritime "Sagarmala" vision.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Indian Ports Act, 2025 replaced the Indian Ports Act, 1908.

• Deendayal Port (formerly Kandla Port) is located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.

• Mundra Port, in Gujarat, is India's largest private port, operated by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited.

9. Centre Orders Captive Coal Power Plants to Run at Full Capacity

Basic Concept

"Captive" power plants are generation units set up by industries (such as steel, aluminium, or cement units) primarily to meet their own electricity needs rather than to sell power commercially, though surplus power can sometimes be sold under regulatory permission. Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 empowers the Central or State Government, in extraordinary circumstances affecting public interest — including a threatened shortage of electricity — to direct any generating company to operate and maintain its plant in a manner specified by the government, overriding the company's own commercial priorities temporarily.

Core Context

The Ministry of Power invoked its Section 11 emergency powers to direct 112 captive coal-based power plants, each with a minimum capacity of 50 MW, to operate at their full available generation capacity between 1 October and the end of the year, in anticipation of a seasonal rise in electricity demand.

Latest Developments

• The order effectively requires captive plant owners to prioritise the wider grid's stability and supply needs over purely captive consumption planning for this window.

• The Ministry has separately directed captive coal plants to maintain adequate coal stocks to be able to sustain full-capacity operations through the winter demand season.

• In a related development, NTPC and France's EDF signed an agreement for a 50:50 joint venture to develop pumped storage, hydropower, and other renewable energy projects in India and neighbouring countries, reflecting the parallel push to add flexible, long-duration storage capacity to the grid.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 allows the government to direct generating companies to operate in a specified manner during a threatened shortage of electricity.

• Captive power plants are primarily set up by industrial consumers for their own electricity needs.

• Pumped storage hydropower is a long-duration energy storage technology that stores energy by moving water between reservoirs at different elevations.

10. CCPA Fines E-Commerce Platforms Over Unregistered Herbicide Sales

Basic Concept

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, is empowered to investigate and penalise unfair trade practices, misleading advertisements, and violations affecting consumer interests at large, including action against e-commerce platforms for third-party listings that breach other applicable laws. Pesticides and herbicides sold in India must be registered under the Insecticides Act, 1968, which requires central registration before manufacture, sale, or distribution, precisely because unregistered agro-chemicals can pose risks to crop safety, soil health, and human health that have not been officially assessed.

Core Context

The CCPA imposed fines on Amazon and Flipkart (₹10 lakh each) and JioMart (₹5 lakh) for the sale and advertising of an unregistered herbicide product marketed as "Cyclosinone," which was not listed under the Insecticides Act, 1968 schedule of approved formulations. The action followed a complaint routed through the Union Ministry of Agriculture, originally raised by the Crop Care Federation of India, an industry body representing registered agro-chemical manufacturers.

Latest Developments

• On the Amazon platform alone, the product had reportedly recorded 38,410 orders covering 43,634 units, worth approximately ₹96.4 lakh in sales value.

• All three platforms have been directed to immediately discontinue the sale of the product, conduct a self-audit of similar unregistered agro-chemical listings, and submit compliance reports within 15 days.

• The episode highlights the CCPA's growing role in policing e-commerce marketplaces for third-party seller compliance, beyond its more commonly reported action against misleading advertisements.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was set up under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

• Pesticide/herbicide registration in India is governed by the Insecticides Act, 1968.

• E-commerce marketplaces can be held liable by the CCPA for facilitating the sale of non-compliant products by third-party sellers.

11. Vedanta Seeks to Reopen Niyamgiri Bauxite Mining

Basic Concept

The Niyamgiri hills in Odisha are home to the Dongria Kondh, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) that considers the hills sacred, worshipping the presiding deity Niyam Raja. In Orissa Mining Corporation v Ministry of Environment and Forests (2013), the Supreme Court held that Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) in the affected area must be consulted on religious and cultural rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, and Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers provisions, before bauxite mining could proceed on Niyamgiri. Twelve Gram Sabhas subsequently and unanimously rejected the mining proposal in 2013, in what is widely regarded as India's first environmental referendum conducted through the Gram Sabha mechanism.

Core Context

More than a decade after the 2013 rejection, Vedanta Chairman Anil Agarwal met the Odisha Chief Minister seeking a reopening of the Niyamgiri bauxite mining proposal, citing estimated reserves of 72–88 million tonnes of bauxite in the hills and offering an investment pledge of about ₹1 lakh crore for downstream smelters, refineries, and power plants in Odisha. Tribal rights groups and Dongria Kondh representatives have already voiced opposition to any fresh mining push, reaffirming the community's 2013 Gram Sabha position.

Latest Developments

• Any renewed mining proposal would have to go through fresh statutory clearances, including compliance with the 2013 Supreme Court directions on Gram Sabha consultation, given the earlier rejection was legally conclusive on the religious and cultural rights question.

• Vedanta's proposal is linked to its broader expansion plans in Odisha, reportedly including new alumina refinery and aluminium smelter capacity that would benefit from a domestic bauxite source.

• The episode reopens a long-standing tension in India's mineral-rich tribal belts between industrial/mineral development priorities and constitutionally protected forest and cultural rights of Scheduled Tribes.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Dongria Kondh, associated with the Niyamgiri hills, are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).

• Orissa Mining Corporation v Ministry of Environment and Forests (2013) is the key Supreme Court case on Niyamgiri, based on the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

• The 2013 Gram Sabha rejection of mining at Niyamgiri is often cited as India's first "environmental referendum."

12. Maharashtra Declares Drought in 265 Talukas

Basic Concept

India's drought management follows the Manual for Drought Management, which prescribes a two-stage "trigger" mechanism: "Trigger 1" indicators (such as prolonged dry spells, rainfall deficiency, and vegetation/soil-moisture indices) flag a taluka or district for closer monitoring, while "Trigger 2" indicators (impact-based indicators such as crop yield loss) confirm the need for formal drought declaration and relief measures. Declaring drought enables states to access the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) and, where the scale warrants, the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF), along with specific relief measures such as loan restructuring and fee waivers.

Core Context

The Maharashtra government, led by Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis, declared drought in 265 of the state's 358 talukas — roughly 74% of the state — after a weak and unevenly distributed monsoon triggered "Trigger 1" indicators, including continuous dry spells of 21 days or more since June in the worst-affected areas.

Latest Developments

• Yavatmal (16 talukas), Jalgaon (15), and Ahilyanagar, Nagpur, Amravati, and Nanded (14 talukas each) were among the worst-affected districts.

• The state announced a 12-point relief package, including waiver of land revenue, restructuring of crop loans, exemption from agricultural pump electricity charges, and waiver of school and college fees for affected students.

• In a related but geographically distinct development, a Bay of Bengal depression brought two days of rain to Andhra Pradesh, easing an earlier rainfall deficit there and raising inflows into the Krishna river basin, prompting the opening of the Prakasam Barrage gates — a reminder of how sharply drought and flood conditions can coexist across neighbouring states in the same season.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• Drought declaration in India follows a two-stage "Trigger 1" and "Trigger 2" mechanism under the Manual for Drought Management.

• Drought relief draws on the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), topped up by the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) for severe events.

• The Prakasam Barrage across the Krishna river is located near Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.

13. India's First Port-Based Green e-Methanol Plant at Kandla

Basic Concept

Green e-methanol is produced by combining green hydrogen (generated from water electrolysis using renewable electricity) with captured carbon dioxide, offering a low-carbon alternative fuel for shipping, chemicals, and industrial use. India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, launched in January 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore, aims to make India a global hub for green hydrogen production and its derivatives, targeting an annual production capacity of at least 5 million metric tonnes by 2030.

Core Context

The foundation stone was laid for India's first port-based green e-methanol plant at Deendayal Port, Kandla, a joint venture between the Deendayal Port Authority (DPA) and a private partner (APCL) in a 76:24 ownership structure, with a total investment of ₹2,300 crore split across two phases.

Latest Developments

• Phase I involves an investment of about ₹1,200 crore targeting 50 tonnes-per-day capacity by January 2027, while Phase II (₹1,100 crore) aims for a combined 150 tonnes-per-day capacity by March 2027.

• The plant will use renewable power, water, and biogenic carbon dioxide as inputs, and claims a production cost of around $750 per tonne, well below the prevailing global cost of roughly $1,300 per tonne for green e-methanol.

• The project positions Kandla as an early hub for green marine fuel bunkering, aligning with global shipping's gradual shift toward low-carbon fuels under International Maritime Organization (IMO) decarbonisation norms.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in January 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore.

• The Mission targets at least 5 million metric tonnes of annual green hydrogen production capacity by 2030.

• Deendayal Port (Kandla) is located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.

14. IIT-Madras's New Seismic Hazard Tool for Dam Safety

Basic Concept

India has one of the largest inventories of large dams in the world, many of them decades old and located in seismically active zones, including the Himalayan belt. The Dam Safety Act, 2021 created a two-tier institutional structure — the National Dam Safety Authority (regulatory body) and the National Committee on Dam Safety (policy/standards body) — to ensure the surveillance, inspection, and structural safety of specified dams across states. Standard seismic zoning maps used in India divide the country into four seismic zones (II to V) based on broad regional earthquake risk, but such generalised maps can either understate or overstate the true risk faced by a specific large structure like a dam.

Core Context

Researchers at IIT-Madras developed a new seismic hazard assessment tool that evaluates site-specific earthquake risk for India's dams, applying it initially across 6,545 dams registered under the National Dam Safety Authority. The tool combines probabilistic seismic hazard analysis with a catalogue of more than 68,000 recorded earthquakes dating back to 2600 BCE, along with mapped fault lines, to generate a more precise, location-specific risk profile than the generalised national seismic zone maps.

Latest Developments

• Applied to major Himalayan dams such as Tehri and Bhakra, the site-specific modelling reportedly showed that the standard zone-based projections were, in some cases, more conservative (i.e., overstated the risk) than the actual site-specific hazard.

• The tool is intended to help prioritise retrofitting and monitoring resources for India's ageing dam infrastructure, much of which was designed before modern seismic engineering standards existed.

• The development comes amid a broader push under the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) to modernise dam safety practices nationwide.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Dam Safety Act, 2021 established the National Dam Safety Authority and the National Committee on Dam Safety.

• India is divided into four seismic zones (Zone II, III, IV, and V) based on earthquake hazard, with Zone V being the most seismically active.

• Tehri Dam (on the Bhagirathi river, Uttarakhand) and Bhakra Dam (on the Sutlej river, Himachal Pradesh–Punjab border) are among India's tallest and largest dams respectively.

15. World Tourism Day 2026

Basic Concept

World Tourism Day is observed annually on 27 September under the aegis of the UN World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), commemorating the date in 1970 on which the UNWTO's founding statutes were adopted. The day is used to highlight tourism's role in economic growth, employment generation, cultural exchange, and, increasingly, sustainable development, with a different host country and thematic focus chosen each year.

Core Context

World Tourism Day 2026 was observed with the theme "Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism," hosted by El Salvador (San Salvador and Surf City), focusing on how digital tools and AI are reshaping travel planning, sustainability practices, and global connectivity within the tourism sector.

Latest Developments

• India's tourism sector contributed an estimated ₹15.73 lakh crore to GDP in 2023–24, equivalent to roughly 5.2% of GDP, and supported an estimated 36.9 million direct and 47.7 million indirect jobs.

• India recorded about 56 lakh foreign tourist arrivals (through August 2025) and over 303 crore domestic tourist visits, alongside foreign exchange earnings of roughly ₹51,532 crore as of June 2025.

• The Ministry of Tourism has been emphasising digital initiatives such as unified travel portals and AI-based itinerary tools as part of India's own alignment with the 2026 theme.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• World Tourism Day is observed on 27 September each year, marking the adoption of the UNWTO Statutes in 1970.

• The UN World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations, headquartered in Madrid, Spain.

• World Tourism Day 2026 was hosted by El Salvador with the theme "Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism."

16. Asian Games 2026: India's Day 8 Medal Rush

Basic Concept

The Asian Games, held every four years and organised by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), is Asia's largest multi-sport event and serves as a key stepping stone for Indian athletes toward Olympic-level competition, making it a recurring source of "current events of national and international importance" for UPSC Prelims. The 2026 edition (the 20th Asian Games) is being held in Aichi–Nagoya, Japan, featuring competitors from OCA member nations across a wide range of Olympic and Asia-specific sports (such as kabaddi and kurash).

Core Context

On Day 8 (27 September 2026) of the Aichi–Nagoya Asian Games, India won seven medals — four silver and three bronze — led by a strong showing in athletics, where Sarvesh, Ancy, Abhay, and Anahat won silver medals and Parul, Tejaswin, and Harita won bronze medals, alongside a silver sweep in squash where both Indian finalists settled for the second-place finish.

Latest Developments

• India's overall medal tally rose to 37 (4 gold, 16 silver, 17 bronze) after Day 8, though the country slipped from 10th to 12th place in the overall standings as Malaysia and Hong Kong moved ahead on gold-medal count.

• On the preceding day (Day 7), India's men's kabaddi team defeated Iran 37–34 to win gold and become nine-time Asian Games kabaddi champions, while marathon runner Sawan Barwal won silver with a new national record timing.

• India's relatively silver-and-bronze-heavy medal composition this edition has renewed discussion on the need for stronger investment in "podium finish" training pipelines in athletics and other Olympic disciplines.

UPSC Prelims Pointers

• The Asian Games are organised by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) and held once every four years.

• The 2026 Asian Games (20th edition) are being hosted by Aichi–Nagoya, Japan.

• India's men's kabaddi team has won gold at every edition of the Asian Games kabaddi has featured, underlining India's dominance in the sport at this event.

17. Practice MCQs

Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners are appointed on the recommendation of a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
2. Electoral rolls in India are prepared under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 provides for a selection committee of the PM, the LoP (Lok Sabha), and a PM-nominated Union Cabinet Minister, following the Supreme Court's Anoop Baranwal (2023) verdict. Electoral rolls are indeed prepared under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

Q2. The NALSA v Union of India (2014) judgment of the Supreme Court is most closely associated with which of the following?

• (a) Right to privacy as a fundamental right

• (b) Recognition of transgender persons' right to self-perceived gender identity

• (c) Decriminalisation of Section 377 of the IPC

• (d) Right to internet access as a fundamental right

Answer: (b) Recognition of transgender persons' right to self-perceived gender identity

Explanation: NALSA v Union of India (2014) recognised transgender persons as a "third gender" and affirmed their right to self-identify their gender without requiring surgery, forming the basis of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, whose 2026 amendment is currently under challenge before the Supreme Court.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1. It bifurcated the erstwhile state into two Union Territories, both with their own legislatures.
2. It came into effect on 31 October 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The Act created two Union Territories — Jammu & Kashmir (with a legislature) and Ladakh (without a legislature) — so Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act took effect on 31 October 2019, making Statement 2 correct.

Q4. The Niyamgiri hills, frequently in the news in the context of bauxite mining and tribal rights, are located in which state?

• (a) Jharkhand

• (b) Chhattisgarh

• (c) Odisha

• (d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (c) Odisha

Explanation: The Niyamgiri hills are located in Odisha and are home to the Dongria Kondh, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group. The Supreme Court's 2013 verdict in Orissa Mining Corporation v Ministry of Environment and Forests required Gram Sabha consultation before mining, leading to the mining proposal's rejection that year.

Q5. With reference to India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched in January 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore.
2. It targets an annual green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 million metric tonnes by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in January 2023 with a ₹19,744 crore outlay and targets at least 5 MMT of annual green hydrogen production capacity by 2030. India's first port-based green e-methanol plant, recently begun at Kandla, is a downstream application of this Mission.

Q6. Which of the following statements about Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 is correct?

• (a) It empowers SEBI to regulate power sector companies listed on stock exchanges

• (b) It empowers the government to direct a generating company to operate its plant in a specified manner during a threatened shortage of electricity

• (c) It mandates minimum renewable purchase obligations for discoms

• (d) It establishes the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission

Answer: (b) It empowers the government to direct a generating company to operate its plant in a specified manner during a threatened shortage of electricity

Explanation: Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 allows the Centre or a state government, in extraordinary public-interest circumstances such as a threatened power shortage, to direct any generating company to operate and maintain its plant as specified — the basis for the recent order to 112 captive coal plants to run at full capacity from October to December.

Q7. The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted by which city/region, and by which organisation are the Asian Games conducted?

• (a) Hangzhou; International Olympic Committee

• (b) Aichi–Nagoya; Olympic Council of Asia

• (c) Doha; Asian Football Confederation

• (d) Jakarta–Palembang; Olympic Council of Asia

Answer: (b) Aichi–Nagoya; Olympic Council of Asia

Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games (20th edition) are being held in Aichi–Nagoya, Japan, and are organised by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), held once every four years across a range of Olympic and Asia-specific sporting disciplines.